ccna ccnp ccsp ccie pass4sure testking testinside

CCNA testsinside 21.24 436 Q/a

2010-08-11T00:29:00.000-07:00

CCNA testsinside 21.24 436 Q/a
Update aug - 2010
How to Open Exam Engine:

1. Double click "TestEngine" exe file to open the Main window.
2. Now click "640-802" in the left hand pane under "Demo Question Library"
3. Click "Start" button in right hand pane under 640-802 tab.

(See screenshots named 'Ti-Open' for better understanding)

System Requirements:-

1. You need a Windows Operating System
2. Your computer must installed Microsoft .NET Framework 2.0 or later.
3. Microsoft Data Access Components 2.8 or later is recommended.
4. Your computer must be able to access the Internet.
5. You need to have permission to install programs on your PC

Download: Microsoft .NET Framework 2.0

http://www.microsoft.com/downloads/details.aspx?displaylang=en&FamilyID=0856eacb-4362-4b0d-8edd-aab15c5e04f5

Microsoft Data Access Components 2.8

http://www.microsoft.com/downloads/details.aspx?displaylang=en&FamilyID=6c050fe3-c795-4b7d-b037-185d0506396c

--------------------------------------------------------------------------

http://hotfile.com/dl/61331724/3806c51/TIS_640-802_v21.24_436Q.zip.html

TestInside CCNA 640 802 Released 23 July 2010

2010-08-04T06:56:00.000-07:00

TestInside CCNA 640-802 Released 23 July 2010

Version : 21.23

SharingMatrix

http://sharingmatrix.com/file/16171303/Testinside_CCNA.rar

HotFile

http://hotfile.com/dl/59727896/08b76d7/Testinside_CCNA.rar.html

TrainSignal Cisco CCENT Training - 2010 edition

2010-07-16T18:53:00.000-07:00

TrainSignal Cisco CCENT Training - 2010 edition

TrainSignal Cisco CCENT Training - 2010 edition | 5.12 GB

System Requirements
----------------------------------------------------------------------
In order to play our videos, your system must meet these
specifications:

o Microsoft Windows XP or Vista
o Internet Explorer version 7 or higher
o Windows Media Player Version 11
o Windows-compatible sound card and speakers (recommended)

-----------------------------

Install, Operate and Troubleshoot a Small Enterprise Branch Network and Become an Entry-Level Network Engineer By Passing the
CCENT Exam (640-822 ICND1)!
By Chris Bryant
CCIE #12933, CCNA, CCNP

Over 15 hours of expert instruction with real world examples of Cisco Networking help you deploy and manage your first Cisco Network.
Mastering Networking Fundamentals has never been more fun: OSI model, IP addressing, routing and switching, security, wireless, WAN, IOS devices, configuring RIPv2, implementing NAT and DHCP and much more!

Acquiring your CCNA certification can be challenging. Cisco recognizes this and has responded with a 2-step solution. By essentially splitting the CCNA into 2 exams (CCENT & ICND2), you can give your brain a break and achieve your goals at your own pace. This course focuses on complete coverage of the CCENT exam.

Cisco CCENT Training Course Outline
Video 1
Introduction to Networking and the Networking Models

To familiarize you with the CCNA and CCENT, explain what you can expect from the course, and cover exam preparation information. I also cover the theory needed for the exam, to accelerate Cisco networking career and for troubleshooting experience

* What is A Network?
* The OSI Model
* The Data Transmission Process
* The TCP/IP Model
* Why Use Networking Models
* TCP And UDP - Part 1
* TCP And UDP - Part 2
* Ports
* Sockets
* Port Numbers

Video 2
Ethernet Standards and Cable Types

The CCENT Exam will Hammer You with Questions About Ethernet... so this course breaks down everything you need to know about cable types. This is also crucial for setting up and running a network in the real world.

* The Need For And Operation of CSMA/CD
* Ethernet Types And Standards
* Pins And Transmissions
* Crosstalk
* Cable Types
* Ethernet Addressing
* Intro to WAN Cabling and a Cable Type Review

Video 3
Switching

I Explain How (and WHY) Switches Work... in theory, for real world application and for the exam.

* Repeaters, Hubs and Bridges
* Building the MAC Table
* "Flood, Filter or Forward?
* Frame Processing Methods
* Virtual LANs
* Cisco Three-Layer Switching Model
* Introduction to STP
* Basic Switch Security
* Port Security Defaults, Options and Configurations

Video 4
Common Router and Switch Commands

This information is necessary both on exam day and also when working in the real world as a network admin, as these commands are used daily.

* Physical Connections and Passwords
* Telnet and SSH
* User, Enable and Privilege Modes
* Enable Password vs. Enable Secret
* "privilege level 15
* Physical Side of Cisco Switches
* Assigning an IP Address and Default Gateway To The Switch
* Speed, Duplex, and "Interface Range
* Banners, "logging synch, and "exec-timeout
* Keystroke Shortcuts and Manipulating History

Video 5
IP Addressing and the Routing Process

This section covers must know (and memorize) fundamentals, which are needed for the exam and necessary for future Videos: binary math, subnetting, and working with network and port address translations.

* IP Addressing and Binary Conversions
* IP Address Classes
* Private IP Address Ranges
* Intro to the Routing Process
* Keeping Subnets On One "Side of the Router

Video 6
ARP, DNS and DHCP

This section will teach you these fundamental protocols which are necessary for use within any network.

* One Destination, Two Destination Addresses
* DNS and DHCP Process
* The ARP Process
* Routers, Broadcasts, and Proxy ARP
* Configuring DHCP on a Cisco Router With SDM

Video 7
Memory Components and Config Files

This Video introduces the student to basic password and security configurations, as well as assigning privilege levels, so it's really the foundation for their knowledge of router security as well as the basic password recovery process.

* ROM, RAM, NVRAM, And Flash
* The Boot Process
* Setup Mode
* Startup And Running Configuration Files
* The COPY Command
* IOS Upgrading
* The Configuration Register

Video 8
Intro to Wireless Networks (WLANs)

Learn the standards of wireless, which relates to all wireless, not just Cisco. This is the fastest evolving and growing field. It's also necessary to memorize this information for the exam.

* Wireless Network Types
* Standards and Ranges
* Spread Spectrum
* Antenna Types
* CA vs. CD
* SSIDs and MAC Address Authentication
* WEP, WPA, and WPA2

Video 9
Binary Math and Subnetting

Fundamentals for the exam. Also, essential for IP addressing and IP address conservation. #1 topic that causes otherwise well prepared students to fail CCNA/CCENT.

* "The Secret (Of Binary Success, That Is)
* Decimal > Binary, Binary > Decimal
* Subnetting Basics
* Calculating Number of Valid Subnets
* Prefix Notification
* Calculating Number of Valid Hosts
* Calculating Number of Valid IP Addresses in a Given Subnet
* Calculating the Subnet Number of a Given IP Address
* Meeting Stated Design Requirements

Mastering Binary Math PDF Workbook
Same benefit as the Binary Math Video, but this gives you the chance to try binary math on your own so you can master it and practice for the exam.
Video 10
Static Routing and RIP - Part 1

More fundamentals for the exam, and you will see the work done over a Cisco router. You will learn how to manually set up routing. This Video will pave the way for future exam and real world success.

* Static Routing Theory and Labs
* RIP Routing Theory and Labs
* "show ip protocols, "show ip route rip, "debug ip rip, And More!

Video 11
Wide Area Networks (WANs)

Learn to link routers with other routers for communication.

* Physical Side of WANs
* Directly Connecting Cisco Routers Via Serial Interfaces
* HDLC and PPP
* Intro to Frame Relay
* RFC 1918 Addresses, NAT and PAT
* Intro to ATM
* Modems and DSL Variations

Video 12
Troubleshooting

95% of work in the real world is troubleshooting, so it's necessary for real world success.

* Where to Begin
* Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)
* L1 and L2 Troubleshooting
* LAN Troubleshooting
* WAN Troubleshooting
* Telnet and SSH Review and Maintenance Commands
* Administrative Distance
* Extended Ping and Traceroute
* The Real Key to Troubleshooting

Video 13
Introduction to Network Security

You will learn about network attackers and intruders, how they get in, and how to keep your network save by keeping them out.

* Firewalls and Proxy Servers
* The Attacker's Arsenal
* Intro to PIX, ASA, IDS, and IPS
* Viruses, Worms, and Trojan Horses
* Preventing Virus Attacks
* One Final Cisco "Secret

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PrepLogic – Cisco 640-802 CCNA LearnSmart Video Training

2010-06-26T19:57:00.000-07:00

PrepLogic – Cisco 640-802 CCNA LearnSmart Video Training | ISO | 4.31 GB

CCNA (640-802) LearnSmart Video Training gives you complete, comprehensive training for all of the objectives for your Cisco CCNA certification exam. You’ll learn in-depth and detailed Cisco knowledge from industry-leading author and CCNA certification instructor Tom Carpenter. Tom’s enthusiasm and expert insight brings Cisco technology to life, making your CCNA learning experience exciting and rewarding.

Included in this release
LearnSmart Video Training – 27 Hours of Instruction
Quiz Me Series Audio Training – 68 Questions
Lecture Series Audio Training – 3 Hours of Training
Printables – 305 Questions
Mega Guide – 183 Pages
Pocket Guide
Download

http://hotfile.com/dl/50814700/1e775d4/Prep.640802CCNA.part01.rar.html
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640-822 TESTKING LATEST

2010-06-26T19:56:00.002-07:00

640-822 TESTKING LATEST "A must have reference material

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[offer] CCNA Routing Labs – Practice labs for the 640-802 exam

2010-06-26T19:56:00.001-07:00

[offer] CCNA Routing Labs – Practice labs for the 640-802 exam

Genre:eLearning

I got these cd’s on ebay and and they help me a lot on my CCNA 640-802 studies, hope this help you as well. Enjoy

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Cisco Certified Network Associate Exam – 640-802 Video Training

2010-06-26T19:50:00.000-07:00

Cisco Certified Network Associate Exam – 640-802 Video Training

The 640-802 Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) is the composite exam associated with the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1) v1.0 and the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) v1.0 courses. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The topics include connecting to a WAN; implementing network security; network types; network media; routing and switching fundamentals; the TCP/IP and OSI models; IP addressing; WAN technologies; operating and configuring IOS devices; extending switched networks with VLANs; determining IP routes; managing IP traffic with access lists; establishing point-to-point connections; and establishing Frame Relay connections.

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Latest TestInside CCNA 640 802 17.14 356 rapidshare

2010-05-24T07:42:00.000-07:00

Latest TestInside CCNA 640 802 17.14 356 rapidshare update 18 may 2010

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Latest TestInside CCNA 640 802 17.12 346 q/a rapidshare

2010-05-05T08:15:00.000-07:00

latest IT ccna 64--802 17.12 with 346 q/a

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hotfile

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Latest TestInside CCNA 640 802 17.11 310 q/a

2010-03-23T01:03:00.000-07:00

Latest TestInside CCNA 640 802 17.11 310 q/a

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Latest TestInside CCNA 640 802 11.73 773

2010-03-17T22:41:00.000-07:00

Latest TestInside CCNA 640 802 11.73 773

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ActualTest ccna 640-802 version 3.1

2010-03-13T01:10:00.000-08:00

ActualTest ccna 640-802 version 3.1

http://hotfile.com/dl/32075728/6f2b0b9/AT640-802v3.1.rar.html

http://rapidshare.com/files/361411402/AT640-802v3.1.rar

Latest Pass4sure P4s CCNA 640 802 v3.00

2010-02-28T18:50:00.000-08:00

CCNA 3.00 latest pass4sure 522 q/a

http://hotfile.com/dl/30635805/f5f6a0c/P4s_CCNA_v3.00.rar.html
or
http://rapidshare.com/files/357284244/P4s_CCNA_v3.00.rar

thanks Josatine sent it to me

60 Q/a from latest pass4sure ccna update 5-jan-2010

2010-01-17T21:09:00.000-08:00

60 Q/a from latest pass4sure ccna update 5-jan-2010

http://rapidshare.com/files/337033729/CCNA_640-802_Pass4sure_v3.00_-Topic_10.rar

hope it help

Latest CCIP Actualtests on rapidshare and Hotfile

2009-12-23T16:46:00.000-08:00

latest CCIP Actualtests on rapidshare and hotfile

Hotfile
http://hotfile.com/dl/21651619/d90a0f8/ActualTests_CCIP.7z.html
Rapidshare
http://rapidshare.com/files/325092300/ActualTests_CCIP.7z

No pass Enjoy .

Latest TestInside ccna 640 802 version 11.72 on rapidshare

2009-12-22T05:38:00.000-08:00

Latest TestInside ccna 640 802 version 11.72 on rapidshare

http://rapidshare.com/files/324348442/TestInside_ccna_640-802_V11.72.rar

Latest TestInside CCNP 642 892 3.40 rapidshare

2009-12-22T00:14:00.000-08:00

Latest TestInside CCNP 642-892 3.40 update 12-20-2009 on rapidshare

Link download

No password

Cisco Unified Communications IP Telephony CIPT1 v6.0

2009-12-22T00:10:00.000-08:00

Cisco Unified Communications IP Telephony CIPT1 v6.0

Part 1 Part 2 Part 3

The Ultimate CCNA Study Package

2009-11-02T06:12:00.000-08:00

The Ultimate CCNA Study Package

http://rapidshare.com/files/301384786/Ultimate_CCNA_Study_Package.rar

Cisco Nexus 1000V Virtual Ethernet Module

2009-11-02T05:59:00.000-08:00

Cisco Nexus 1000V Virtual Ethernet Module is a vSphere 4 addon which provide cisco networking ablilities to your VM.
More info :

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps9902/tsd_products_support_general_information.html

Link download

http://rapidshare.com/files/301379964/Cisco.Nexus.1000V.Virtual.Ethernet.Module.v1.0.rar

Cisco Unified Presence 7.0

2009-11-02T05:48:00.000-08:00

Cisco Unified Presence 7.0 Presence Web Services

Link Download

Cisco Unified Presence v7.0

Link Download

Latest TestInside ccna version 26 with 293 q/a

2009-11-02T05:47:00.000-08:00

Latest TestInside ccna version 26 with 293 q/a on rapidshare

http://rapidshare.com/files/300763735/CCNA_640-802_v26_293q.rar

ActualTest Ccnp 642 812 update 30 9 2009

2009-10-21T21:38:00.001-07:00

ActualTest Ccnp 642 812 update 30 9 2009

Link on rapidshare

http://rapidshare.com/files/296233067/act642-812.rar

Download testinside ccnp 642 812 version 5.73

2009-10-10T04:50:00.000-07:00

Download testinside ccnp 642 812 version 5.73 rapidshare

Exam Number/Code : 642-812

Exam Name : Building Cisco Multilayer Switched Networks

Questions and Answers : 252 Q&As

Update Time: 2009-09-11

http://rapidshare.com/files/291037080/Testinside_642-812_v5.73.rar

Cisco Networkers 2009 Cryptography in Cisco Unified Communications

2009-09-19T01:42:00.000-07:00

Cisco Networkers 2009 -Cryptography in Cisco Unified Communications

This session provides information about security fundamentals and discusses how cryptographic features are used to secure Cisco Unified Communications deployments. It describes symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hash-based message authentication codes, digital signatures, and PKI. It discusses Cisco Unified Communications Manager security features including signed phone loads, signed and encrypted configuration files, secure signaling, sRTP, IPSec, and secure SRST. This session helps CCVP candidates with a strong voice background lacking security experience to prepare for CCVP exam questions that relate

Part 1 Part 2 Part 3 Part 4 Part 5 Part 6

Testking ccna 640 802 version 39.0

2009-09-15T17:18:00.000-07:00

Testking ccna 640 802 version 39.0

http://rapidshare.com/files/279749873/640-802.V39.0.rar

Latest Testinside ccie 350 001 v7.19

2009-09-15T17:16:00.000-07:00

Testinside latest dumps ccie 350 001 v7.19 on rapidshare

http://rapidshare.com/files/279749872/350-001V7.19.rar

Latest pass4sure p4s ccie 350 001 6.53 353 q/a

2009-09-15T17:14:00.000-07:00

Latest pass4sure p4s ccie 350 001 6.53 353 q/a update July 18 2009 link on rapidshare

http://rapidshare.com/files/279734111/P4S_350-001_6.53.rar

Securing Networks with Cisco Routers and Switches

2009-09-13T17:56:00.000-07:00

Securing Networks with Cisco Routers and Switches (SNRS) v3.0

Associated

Certifications: CCSP

Duration: 5 days,Virtual Classroom

hours,Web Based Training

5 days,Classroom

Course Content Course Outline

Prerequisites Who Should Attend

Prerequisites

* Experience in configuring Cisco IOS software and have met the following prerequisites:

* Certification as a CCNA or the equivalent knowledge / SND.

* Basic knowledge of the Windows operating system Familiarity with the networking and security terms and concepts (the concepts are learned in prerequisite training or by reading industry publications)

Course Content

Securing Networks with Cisco Routers and Switches [SNRS] is part of the curriculum path leading to the Cisco Certified Security Professional (CCSP) certification. It is a five-day instructor-led course aimed at providing network specialists with the knowledge and skills needed to secure Cisco IOS router and switch networks. It has been updated for Cisco IOS Release 12.4(6)T.

Course Objective

After completing this course the student should be able to:

* secure a network using existing Cisco IOS security including Trust and Identy with Identity Based Networking Service; Network Foundation Protection including securing the Control, Management and Data Plane.

* Invoke Secured Connectivity with IPsec and VPNs, and implement Adaptive Threat Defense by configuring Cisco Classic and Zone-Based Firewalls and Cisco IOS IPS.

Course Outline

Module 1 Layer 2 Security

Module 2 Trust and Identity

Module 3 Cisco Network Foundation Protection

Module 4 Secured Connectivity

Module 5 Adaptive Threat Defense

Who Should Attend

* Employee

* Channel Partner / Reseller

* Customer

Link on rapidshare

Part 1 Part 2

ccna-ccnp-ccsp-ccie

GLOBAL IPV6 STRATEGIES

2009-09-13T17:52:00.000-07:00

GLOBAL IPV6 STRATEGIES

The download link provided is for the Cisco.Press.Interconnecting.Cisco.Network.Devices.Part.2.ICND2.Feb.2008

Link download

Latest pass4sure P4S 642 845 ONT 6.79 rapidshare

2009-09-07T17:34:00.000-07:00

Latest pass4sure P4S 642-845 ONT 6.79 rapidshare

http://rapidshare.com/files/276204117/P4S_ONT_6.79_Full.rar

Latest pass4sure P4S 642 825 ISCW 6.50

2009-09-07T17:30:00.000-07:00

Latest P4S pass4sure 642-825 ISCW 6.50

http://rapidshare.com/files/276204115/P4S_ISCW_6.50_Full.rar

Latest P4S 642 901 BSCI 6.85

2009-09-07T17:25:00.000-07:00

Latest pass4sure P4S 642-901 BSCI 6.85 on rapidshare

http://rapidshare.com/files/276204114/P4S_BSCI_6.85_Full.rar

Pass4sure Ccna security 640 533 4.38 with 138 q/a

2009-09-06T19:28:00.000-07:00

Latest Pass4sure Ccna security 640-533 4.38 with 138 q/a on rapidshare

Link on rapidshare

Plz reset your PC after setup

Latest P4S BCMSN 6.87 Full setup on rapidshare

2009-09-05T18:43:00.000-07:00

Latest P4S BCMSN 6.87 Full setup on rapidshare link

http://rapidshare.com/files/276204113/P4S_BCMSN_6.87_Full.rar

Latest pass4sure ccnp 642 892 composite v6.99

2009-09-05T18:42:00.000-07:00

Latest pass4sure ccnp 642-892 composite version 6.99 on rapidshare

http://rapidshare.com/files/276204111/P4S_642-892_6.99_Full.rar

p4s 640 802 version 7.73 with 473 q/a

2009-09-04T06:18:00.000-07:00

Latest Pass4sure ccna p4s 640-802 version 7.73 with 473 q/a update 3-9-2009

Link on rapidshare

Download

Plz check your DCOM service and reset your PC when setup finish

Train Signal Lab 14 Group Policy

2009-08-27T06:48:00.000-07:00

Train Signal Lab 14 Group Policy

http://rapidshare.com/files/272152522/TS_N_o_._9_l14.part01.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/272151681/TS_N_o_._9_l14.part02.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/272151307/TS_N_o_._9_l14.part03.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/272151577/TS_N_o_._9_l14.part04.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/272151768/TS_N_o_._9_l14.part05.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/272152654/TS_N_o_._9_l14.part06.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/272151216/TS_N_o_._9_l14.part07.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/272152419/TS_N_o_._9_l14.part08.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/272151535/TS_N_o_._9_l14.part09.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/272151324/TS_N_o_._9_l14.part10.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/272151398/TS_N_o_._9_l14.part11.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/272151582/TS_N_o_._9_l14.part12.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/272152670/TS_N_o_._9_l14.part13.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/272151571/TS_N_o_._9_l14.part14.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/272151443/TS_N_o_._9_l14.part15.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/272151678/TS_N_o_._9_l14.part16.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/272151356/TS_N_o_._9_l14.part17.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/272151331/TS_N_o_._9_l14.part18.rar

P4s ccnp 642-845 v6.79 379 update 2009

2009-08-27T00:42:00.000-07:00

latest pass4sure p4s ccnp 642-845 v6.79 379 q/a update 18-8-2009

http://rapidshare.com/files/272040671/latest_642-845v6.79.rar

Certways CVOICE 642 436 7 2009

2009-08-25T18:58:00.000-07:00

Certways CVOICE 642-436 22-07-09 Exam Simulator format PDF file

Link download

http://rapidshare.com/files/271545623/certexam.blogspot.com_642-436_07.09.pdf

hope it help

TestInside CVOICE 642 436 4.72 and Simulator

2009-08-25T05:40:00.000-07:00

TestInside CVOICE 642 436 4.72 and Simulator with 77 q/a update 30-6-2009( best for you)

http://rapidshare.com/files/271293054/CVOICE_642-436_v.4.72.vce

Pass4sure P4S ONT 642-845 v6.79 PDF

2009-08-24T23:00:00.000-07:00

pass4sure P4S ccnp ONT 642-845 v6.79 PDF

link on rapidshare

http://rapidshare.com/files/271174323/P4S_ONT_642-845_v6.79_PDF.rar

Link on hotfile

http://hotfile.com/dl/10816280/2f17ada/P4S_ONT20642-845_v6.79_PDF.rar.html

Latest p4s 640 802 7.63 image format

2009-08-21T21:15:00.000-07:00

Latest p4s 640 802 7.63 image format with 463 q/a no setup

rapidshare link

http://rapidshare.com/files/270063726/p4s-ccna-7.63-image.part1.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/270063729/p4s-ccna-7.63-image.part2.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/270063710/p4s-ccna-7.63-image.part3.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/270063669/p4s-ccna-7.63-image.part4.rar

hotfile link

http://hotfile.com/dl/10642997/1e5de7a/p4s-ccna-7.63-image.part1.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10643006/c785160/p4s-ccna-7.63-image.part2.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10643012/7e4ce76/p4s-ccna-7.63-image.part3.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10643016/880ec14/p4s-ccna-7.63-image.part4.rar.html

No pass .

Hope it help

Testout ccnp 642-812

2009-08-21T08:48:00.000-07:00

Testout ccnp 642-812

Hotfile link

http://hotfile.com/dl/10619209/902c11e/BCCMS.642-812.part1.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10619262/2248800/BCCMS.642-812.part2.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10619320/59973fa/BCCMS.642-812.part3.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10619348/6ece224/BCCMS.642-812.part4.rar.html

rapidshare link

http://rapidshare.com/files/269877280/BCCMS.642-812.part1.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/269877322/BCCMS.642-812.part2.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/269878171/BCCMS.642-812.part3.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/269877358/BCCMS.642-812.part4.rar

TestOut ccnp 640-901 BSCI

2009-08-21T08:24:00.000-07:00

TestOut ccnp 640-901 BSCI

Rapidshare link

http://rapidshare.com/files/269869294/Test642901-.part01.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/269868807/Test642901-.part02.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/269869068/Test642901-.part03.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/269869130/Test642901-.part04.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/269869160/Test642901-.part05.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/269868711/Test642901-.part06.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/269868684/Test642901-.part07.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/269869110/Test642901-.part08.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/269868904/Test642901-.part09.rar

Hotfile link

http://hotfile.com/dl/10617847/1447d42/Test642901-.part01.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10617919/51d3d37/Test642901-.part02.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10617973/82ebe05/Test642901-.part03.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10618031/3666063/Test642901-.part04.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10618070/bba25c0/Test642901-.part05.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10618109/2a5c503/Test642901-.part06.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10618148/1b60a85/Test642901-.part07.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10618180/93692be/Test642901-.part08.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10618206/701f121/Test642901-.part09.rar.html

Latest pass4sure p4s ccna 640-802 version 7.63

2009-08-21T04:02:00.001-07:00

Latest Pass4sure p4s ccna 7.63 with 463 Auto setup file release Updated: August 18th , 2009

1)this is fully automated
2)it will disable dcom server process launcher automatically
3)it will copy all required files to proper place automatically
4)it will make license.key file as read-only
5)it will create desktop shortcut and also all programs shortcut
just install it like a normal software you dont need any internet connection
and when it shows last msg saying you to restart your computer-> plz reset your PC.
Link on rapidshare

Link on hotfile

TestOut ccna 640-802 full version

2009-08-15T01:31:00.000-07:00

TestOut ccna 640-802 full version

***Please read the instruction and you must installed old version***

How to bypass TestOut's CCNA 640-802 activation & enable the simulations using their old 640-801 edition.

Make sure you have both versions of Testout's CCNA edition's. 640-801 & 640-802.

I used Disc Images (ISOs) and mounted them with Daemon-Tools.

1. Install Testout CCNA 640-801. Make sure you choose to install the entire thing onto your hard drive.

I'm not sure if it will run without doing an update after the install but I did it anyways. Choose NOT to launch the Testout Navigator and finish the install.

2. Mount or Insert the TestOut 640-802 iso/disc but DO NOT install it. Close the setup.

3. Open the CD drive

where the iso/disc is mounted, goto :\Testout . Select and copy every folder.

4. Goto your TestOut's Program Installation folder. \Program Files\Testout and paste the CD contents you selected earlier.. Make sure you overwrite the existing files. Say yes to all.

5. Go into the \Program Files\Testout\Outlines folder and rename c802cle.xml to ccna3cle.xml.

6. Now go back into the CD and navigate into :\Setup\redist\dotnet20 folder and install dotnetfx.exe

7. You are done...Open the Testout Navigator, create a username(for reports don't worry) and Open the 640-801 module. You'll notice that 640-802 will appear and all the router simulations will work.

8. Double Check to see if Updating is disabled.

Rapidshare

TestOut ccna 3.0

http://rapidshare.com/files/267579136/testout_CCNA_640801.part1.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/267578006/testout_CCNA_640801.part2.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/267578635/testout_CCNA_640801.part3.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/267578275/testout_CCNA_640801.part4.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/267578299/testout_CCNA_640801.part5.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/267578503/testout_CCNA_640801.part6.rar

testout ccna 4.0

http://rapidshare.com/files/267578719/testout_CCNA_640802.part01.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/267578119/testout_CCNA_640802.part02.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/267578463/testout_CCNA_640802.part03.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/267578404/testout_CCNA_640802.part04.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/267579130/testout_CCNA_640802.part05.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/267577898/testout_CCNA_640802.part06.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/267579260/testout_CCNA_640802.part07.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/267578582/testout_CCNA_640802.part08.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/267579005/testout_CCNA_640802.part09.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/267577895/testout_CCNA_640802.part10.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/267578889/testout_CCNA_640802.part11.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/267578878/testout_CCNA_640802.part12.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/267578393/testout_CCNA_640802.part13.rar

Hotfile.com

http://hotfile.com/links/10301716/63f66af/testout_CCNA_640801.part1.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/links/10301728/dca2211/testout_CCNA_640801.part2.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/links/10301729/03d4fff/testout_CCNA_640801.part3.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/links/10301743/cb0fe99/testout_CCNA_640801.part4.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/links/10301757/6d4d330/testout_CCNA_640801.part5.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/links/10301783/9b5b544/testout_CCNA_640801.part6.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10301908/3118887/testout_CCNA_640802.part01.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10301912/d915f46/testout_CCNA_640802.part02.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10301919/27b3bb3/testout_CCNA_640802.part03.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10301928/636bd61/testout_CCNA_640802.part04.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10301940/7d20930/testout_CCNA_640802.part05.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10301945/7844098/testout_CCNA_640802.part06.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10301953/446fd73/testout_CCNA_640802.part07.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10301960/972ef8a/testout_CCNA_640802.part08.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10301970/dc0b62a/testout_CCNA_640802.part09.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10301977/a6c0516/testout_CCNA_640802.part10.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10301988/d5bc171/testout_CCNA_640802.part11.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10301994/30094fe/testout_CCNA_640802.part12.rar.html

http://hotfile.com/dl/10301998/af08a6b/testout_CCNA_640802.part13.rar.html

FileFactory.com

http://www.filefactory.com/file/ah115f4/n/testout_CCNA_640801_part1_rar

http://www.filefactory.com/file/ah1150c/n/testout_CCNA_640801_part2_rar

http://www.filefactory.com/file/ah1150b/n/testout_CCNA_640801_part3_rar

http://www.filefactory.com/file/ah1150a/n/testout_CCNA_640801_part4_rar

http://www.filefactory.com/file/ah115h8/n/testout_CCNA_640801_part5_rar

http://www.filefactory.com/file/ah115h7/n/testout_CCNA_640801_part6_rar

http://www.filefactory.com/file/ah116f4/n/testout_CCNA_640802_part01_rar

http://www.filefactory.com/file/ah116f9/n/testout_CCNA_640802_part02_rar

http://www.filefactory.com/file/ah116f8/n/testout_CCNA_640802_part03_rar

http://www.filefactory.com/file/ah116f3/n/testout_CCNA_640802_part04_rar

http://www.filefactory.com/file/ah116f2/n/testout_CCNA_640802_part05_rar

http://www.filefactory.com/file/ah116f7/n/testout_CCNA_640802_part06_rar

http://www.filefactory.com/file/ah116f6/n/testout_CCNA_640802_part07_rar

http://www.filefactory.com/file/ah116f1/n/testout_CCNA_640802_part08_rar

http://www.filefactory.com/file/ah116ff/n/testout_CCNA_640802_part09_rar

http://www.filefactory.com/file/ah116f0/n/testout_CCNA_640802_part10_rar

http://www.filefactory.com/file/ah116ga/n/testout_CCNA_640802_part11_rar

http://www.filefactory.com/file/ah116f5/n/testout_CCNA_640802_part12_rar

http://www.filefactory.com/file/ah116e8/n/testout_CCNA_640802_part13_rar

-----

Source

http://ccna-ccnp-ccsp-ccie.blogspot.com

642-901 BSCI P4S v6.85 With Fully Automated

2009-08-14T19:57:00.000-07:00

642-901 BSCI P4S v6.85 With Fully Automated

what is special in this one
1)this is fully automated
2)it will disable dcom server process launcher automatically
3)it will copy all required files to proper place automatically
4)it will make license.key file as read-only
5)it will create desktop shortcut and also all programs shortcut

http://rapidshare.com/files/267515205/642-901_v6.85.zip

Latest TestInside ccnp BSCI v7.12

2009-08-14T19:41:00.000-07:00

latest TestInside ccnp BSCI v7.12

http://rapidshare.com/files/267512292/TestInside_BSCI_v7.12.zip

http://hotfile.com/dl/10235168/993fa7a/TestInside20BSCI20v7.12.zip.html

Latest pass4sure p4s ccnp 642-812 version 6.87

2009-08-14T18:54:00.000-07:00

Latest pass4sure p4s ccnp 642-812 version 6.87

http://hotfile.com/dl/10233577/d3fac51/P4S_642-812_v6.87.rar.html

http://rapidshare.com/files/267502366/P4S_642-812_v6.87.rar

Latest ccbootcamp advance technoloy workbook 1-5 labs ver 3

2009-08-05T17:17:00.001-07:00

Latest Advance technology workbook for CCIE VOICE ver 3 from NLI (CCBOOTCAMP)

http://www.4shared.com/file/123160395/57a17e29/ver31-lab-1-5.html

TestKing ccnp 642-812 version 13 Jul 2009

2009-08-04T04:56:00.000-07:00

TestKing ccnp 642-812 version 13 21-jul-2009

http://rapidshare.com/files/263595288/TestKing_642-812__BCMSN__v13.rar

Latest KILLTEST CCNA 640-802 release VCE

2009-08-04T04:43:00.000-07:00

KILLTEST CCNA 640-802 release .VCE

http://rapidshare.com/files/263591916/640-802KILLTESTv420-207.rar

CCIE R&S Lab ASET

2009-08-03T08:50:00.000-07:00

CCIE R&S Lab ASET

ASET Lab R&S Switching Module
http://rapidshare.com/files/259180662/ASET_Switching_Modular.rar
ASET Lab R&S IGP Module
http://rapidshare.com/files/259222663/IGP.rar
ASET Lab R&S IOS Features Module
http://rapidshare.com/files/259346531/IP-IOS_Features.rar
ASET Lab R&S QoS Module
http://rapidshare.com/files/259346815/QoS.rar
ASET Lab R&S Multicast Module
http://rapidshare.com/files/259347053/Multicast.rar.html
ASET Lab R&S Security Module
http://rapidshare.com/files/259465140/Sec.rar
ASET Lab R&S BGP Module
http://rapidshare.com/files/259464576/BGP.rar
ASET Lab R&S IPv6 Module
http://rapidshare.com/files/259464751/IPv6.rar
--------------------------------------------------------------
Full Labs 1
http://rapidshare.com/files/259967576/ASET_Full_Lab_1.rar
Full Labs 2
http://rapidshare.com/files/260548840/ASET_Full_Lab_2.rar
Full Labs 3
http://rapidshare.com/files/261012083/Full_Labs3.rar
Full Labs 4
http://rapidshare.com/files/262217559/ASET_Full_Lab_4.rar
Full Labs 5

GNS3 with tutorial and related tools

2009-08-02T18:25:00.001-07:00

GNS3 0.5 with tutorial and related tools

GNS3 0.5

GNS3 0.5 tutorial

GNS3 0.5 wit IOS 1700,2600,7200 series Routers

VPC Software VER 14 & 15

Putty

IOS searching tool

Code:

hxxp://www.ziddu.com/download/2354179/GNS3-0-5-win32-all-in-one.rar.html

hxxp://www.ziddu.com/download/2354693/GNS3-0-5-tutorial.rar.html

hxxp://www.ziddu.com/download/2373815/GNS3-0-5-win32-all-in-one_withIOS.rar.html

hxxp://www.ziddu.com/download/2354884/vpcs.rar.html

hxxp://www.ziddu.com/download/2354917/putty.rar.html

hxxp://www.ziddu.com/download/2354918/IOSHunterTrial.rar.htm

Lammle Press CCNA 14 Modules Complete DVD

2009-08-02T18:23:00.001-07:00

Lammle Press CCNA 14 Modules Complete DVD

Get the foundation you need to prepare for the Todd Lammle Cisco® authorized CCNA Boot Camps. Order Self-Paced Training on DVD from Lammle Press!
Todd Lammle, CCNA/CCNP/CCSP/CCVP, CEH/CEFI, FCC RF Licensed, popular Sybex author and trainer at GlobalNet Training has been involved in computers and networking with Fortune 500 companies for over two decades. He has worked for large companies such as Hughes Aircraft, Xerox, Texaco, Toshiba, Cisco, AAA and IBM, among many others.

Module 1 Internetworking
Introduction to basic networking Hardware and logical addressing OSI Reference Model The seven layers and their functions Ethernet Networking …

Module 2: Introduction to TCP/IP
Introducing the Internet Protocol Stack The DoD Model Application layer protocols Host to Host Layer protocols Network layer protocols Written Lab:…

Module 3: IP address, Subnetting, VLSM and Summarization
Introduction to IP addressing Hexadecimal and Binary addressing Class C Subnetting Class B Subnetting Class A Subnetting Variable Length Subnet Masks…

Module 4: Introduction to the Cisco IOS
How a router and switch boots Memory types in a router and switch User mode Privileged mode Administrative functions Hostname Banner Passwords…

Module 5: IOS Management and IP Troubleshooting
How to verify and copy your IOS to a tftp server How to verify and copy an IOS from a TFTP server How to verify and copy your configuration to a tftp…

Module 6: IP Routing
Introduction to IP Routing Static Routing Dynamic Routing RIP Routing RIPv2 Routing Verifying RIP Routing Hands-on Lab 6.1: Static Routing Hands-on…

Module 7: EIGRP and OSPF
Introduction to Enhanced IGRP Configuring and Verifying EIGRP Introduction to OSPF OSPF wildcard masking OSPF Elections Verifying OSPF Hands-on Lab…

Module 8: Layer-2 Switching and Spanning Tree Protocol
Introduction to layer-2 switching The MAC address table The three switch functions Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) Determining the Root bridge STP…

Module 9: Virtual LANs (VLANs)
Introduction to Virtual LANs Configuring VLANs Assigning Switch port memberships Configuring trunk ports Inter-VLAN routing Router on a stick…

Module 10: Access-lists
Introduction to Access Lists Standard Access Lists Extended Access Lists Names Access Lists Configuring Access lists with wildcards Verifying and…

Module 11: Network Address Translation
Introduction to Network Address Translation (NAT) Static NAT Dynamic NAT Port Address Translation (PAT) Verifying and Troubleshooting NAT Hands-on…

Module 12: Wireless LANs
Introduction to Wireless LAN’s WLAN Technologies IEEE 802.11 Specifications WLAN Security Hands-on Labs 12.1: Analyzing WLAN Traffic Time…

Module 13: IPv6
Introduction to IPv6 IPv6 addressing IPv6 Routing Protocols Configuring and Verifying IPv6 Hands-on Labs 13.1: Configuring and Verifying IPv6 Time…

Module 14: Wide Area Networks (WANs) and Security Device Manager
Introduction to Wide Are Networks High-level Data Link Control (HDLC) Point-to-point protocol (PPP) Frame Relay Security Device Manager (Covers SDM

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Cisco Press LAN Switching Fundamentals

2009-08-02T18:22:00.000-07:00

Cisco Press LAN Switching Fundamentals
Publisher : Cisco Press | July 15, 2004 | Language: English | ISBN : 1-58705-089-7 | CHM | 408 Pages | 12 Chapter | 4.09 MB

This is the eBook version of the printed book. If the print book includes a CD-ROM, this content is not included within the eBook version. The essential guide for understanding Ethernet switched networks

* Understand various Ethernet technologies from 10BASE-T to Gigabit Ethernet
* Learn about common switching modes, paths, and architectures
* Delve into the Cisco Catalyst switch architecture and examine the various Catalyst switch models, including the 6000/6500, 4500, and 3750
* Become familiar with VLAN concepts, including types of trunks, VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP), and private VLANs
* Understand Multilayer Switching (MLS) and the various hardware components that make MLS work
* Learn how to configure Cisco Catalyst switches in both native and hybrid mode
* Implement QoS on Cisco Catalyst switches
* Deploy multicast features and protocols, including PIM, IGMP snooping, and CGMP
* Utilize data link layer features such as BPDU Guard, BPDU Filter, Root Guard, Loop Guard, RSTP, and MST
* Evaluate design and configuration best practices
* Learn how to manage LANs and troubleshoot common problems

Local-area networks (LANs) are becoming increasingly congested and overburdened because of a dramatic increase in traffic, faster CPUs and operating systems, and more network-intensive applications. Many organizations that use network and computing technology use LAN switching to take advantage of high-speed traffic forwarding and improved performance of traditional Ethernet technologies that don't require costly wiring upgrades or time-consuming host reconfiguration. Cisco LAN Switching Fundamentals provides administrators of campus networks with the most up-to-date introduction to LAN switching within a traditional Ethernet environment.

Cisco LAN Switching Fundamentals presents an in-depth look at modern campus network requirements. It provides an easy-to-understand introduction to LAN switching best practices using Cisco Catalyst switches. This book provides you with a wealth of details on the architecture, operation, and configuration of the Cisco Catalyst family of switches. You learn about a wide range of topics, including quality of service (QoS), multicast, Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP), Multiple Spanning Tree (MST), private virtual LANs (VLANs), and configuration using the native and hybrid software interfaces. Design advice and configuration examples are discussed liberally throughout the book to provide you with the best perspective on effective deployment techniques. Finally, the book wraps up with a discussion of steps necessary to troubleshoot common problems and optimize LAN performance.

Whether you are looking for an introduction to LAN switching principles and practices or a Cisco Catalyst configuration and troubleshooting reference, this book provides you with the invaluable insight you need to design and manage high-performance campus networks.

http://uploading.com/files/PE8W7CF8/b1u3eyes.Cisco.Press.LAN.Switching.Fundamentals.rar.html

TestInside BCMSN 642 812 246 q/a

2009-08-02T18:19:00.000-07:00

TestInside BCMSN 642-812 246 q/a 2009-7-13

Building Cisco Multilayer Switched Networks : 642-812 Exam

Exam Number/Code: 642-812
Exam Name: Building Cisco Multilayer Switched Networks
Questions and Answers: 246 Q&As
Update Time: 2009-7-13

Link

Testout ccna 640-802 on rapidshare

2009-07-24T06:38:00.000-07:00

Testout ccna 640-802 on rapidshare

http://rapidshare.com/files/259512953/LinkTO640-802.rar

Plz read careful before setup this one

Pass4sure p4s ccnp BCMSN 642 812 387 q/a

2009-07-14T05:56:00.000-07:00

Pass4sure p4s ccnp BCMSN 642-812 387 q/a

http://rapidshare.com/files/255153129/P4S_BCMSN_642-812_387Q.rar

Pass4sure p4s ISCW 6.50 Q 337-350

2009-07-14T05:54:00.000-07:00

Latest Pass4sure p4s ISCW 6.50 from 337-350

http://rapidshare.com/files/255153127/ISCW_v6.50_Q337-350.rar

p4s 640-802 v7.58 with 458 PDF

2009-07-09T21:34:00.000-07:00

Latest Pass4sure p4s 640-802 v7.58 with 458 questions/Answers PDF format

http://rapidshare.com/files/254046598/640-802_v7.58-PDF.part1.rar

http://rapidshare.com/files/254046599/640-802_v7.58-PDF.part2.rar

Latest Pass4sure p4s ccna 640 802 7.58 458 q/a

2009-07-09T04:26:00.000-07:00

Latest Pass4sure p4s ccna 640-802 7.58 458 q/a update july 4 2009

http://rapidshare.com/files/253411118/640-802v758.rar

It is full version .

Please read caful the readme file in this path to setup

Pass4sure p4s 640 901 BSCI 6.81 Full

2009-07-09T04:24:00.000-07:00

Latest pass4sure p4s 640-901 BSCI 6.81 on rapidshare

http://rapidshare.com/files/247734642/642-901v6.81.rar

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 9 Exam Answers Version 4.0

2009-07-09T04:22:00.002-07:00

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 9 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Which two statements describe factors that influence the layout of a proposal? (Choose two.)
• Proposal layouts are required to use sans serif typefaces.
• A specific proposal layout is followed when one is specified in the RFP.
• A designer chooses the layout if a written RFP does not specify an outline.
• The software that is used to create the proposal dictates the proposal layouts.
• Proposal layouts are required to use a format that is designed by the network engineer.

2 . What two items are typically included in the executive summary of a proposal? (Choose two.)
• project scope summary
• high-level implementation plan
• quotes for all needed equipment
• technical requirements for the design
• emphasis on the benefits that meet the goals of the customer

3. Which proposal section describes the intended routing protocol, security mechanisms, and addressing for the planned network?
• logical design
• physical design
• executive summary
• implementation plan
• network requirements

4. Which occurrence would indicate a failure of the design phase?
• The incorrect model switches were ordered.
• There is no customer signoff for task completion.
• New requirements are identified after implementation begins.
• The new network capacity is inadequate to support required traffic.

5. A network installation team is assigned to replace all core switches in an existing data center. No other upgrades are planned. Which kind of installation is this?
• a new installation
• a fork-lift installation
• a phased installation
• a green field installation

6. What service is provided Cisco standard warranty?
• software application maintenance
• replacement of defected hardware
• next business day delivery of replacement parts
• access to the Cisco Technical Assistance Center (TAC) 24 hours a day, 7 days a week

7. An upgraded version of the Cisco IOS has been purchased. However, the CD arrived damaged. How will this loss be covered?
• a hardware warranty
• a software warranty
• the Cisco SMARTnet Service
• an additional service contract

8. A company informs the account manager that the installation of a new edge router at the customer remote branch location cannot be done at the scheduled time because of a large order that the branch office needs to complete. As a result, the end date of the project must be adjusted to accommodate the additional time. What is the action should the account manager take?
• Cancel the order for the new edge router.
• Work with designer to redesign the branch network.
• Instruct the technician to complete the install of the router at on the date in the contract.
• Adjust the timeline documentation to show the company how the delay will affect the
• project completion date.

9. NetworkingCompany completes the installation of a network upgrade for a retail customer. All of the onsite tests complete successfully and the customer IT staff approves the results of the tests. The manager of the retail store contacts NetworkingCompany to inform the company that the store will not pay for the upgrade until a recently purchased software package is installed and tested on the network. Which two items that are contained in the proposal can the account manager refer to when discussing this issue with the store manager?(Choose two.)
• the project scope
• the bill-of-material
• the project timeline
• the terms and conditions
• the business goals of the customer
• the evaluation of the current network

10. The operation of a new branch location network is delayed because a VPN cannot be configured and established between the branch location and the main office. It is determined that the router at the main office does not have enough memory and does not have the correct Cisco IOS version image to support the VPN features. To prevent this delay, this problem should have been identified and corrected during which part of the design project?
• the preparation of the business case
• the prioritizing of the technical goals
• the characterization of the existing network
• the implementation of the approved design

11.The NetworkingCompany team is tasked to prepare an implementation schedule for a customer. It is determined that the new firewalls and wireless controllers that are specified in the design cannot be delivered and installed within the agreed upon time frame. The NetworkingCompany informs the customer of the problem. What two options can the NetworkingCompany team take to ensure the success of the project? (Choose two.)
• plan to add additional staff and resources to shorten the installation time after the new equipment is delivered
• eliminate redundancy in the design to reduce the amount of equipment that is needed
• renegotiate a new time frame with the customer to accommodate the delay
• delay the installation of the security devices and controllers until a later time
• redesign the network to use only readily available equipment and software

12. AAA Financial Services Company is performing implementation planning for a core switch upgrade. The company has 200 financial software programmers that work billable hours during the week. They have critical, scheduled money transfer transmissions that occur at hourly intervals every night. There are two, two-hour long IT maintenance windows scheduled for software upgrades, one on Saturday and one on Sunday. The bank advertises online banking as available 24 hours on business days and 21 hours on the weekends. However, a network upgrade that is necessary to replace some switches is expected to take four hours. Because of rack constraints, this time includes three hours to remove the old switches before the new switches can be installed and one hour to test the logical configuration. How should the implementation scheduling be handled
• Defer the software upgrades. Use the Saturday window to perform the hardware installation. Use the Sunday window to perform the logical testing.
• Coordinate and publish a separate four-hour downtime during Friday to perform the complete switch installation and testing process. Use the Saturday and Sunday windows to correct any outage problems after the Friday window.
• Coordinate and publish two, four-hour downtimes incorporating the published Saturday and Sunday windows. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working
correctly with the old software. Use the Sunday window as a fallback scheduling period if there re problems necessitating backing out of the Saturday window.
• Coordinate and publish an eight-hour downtime incorporating the Saturday window. This ill allow four hours for installation and logical testing, one hour for troubleshooting and decision, and three hours to roll back to the previous configuration if the new switching cannot pass the logical testing. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working orrectly with the old software.

13. ncluded in a Bill of Materials (BOM) for a SOHO wired implementation is a Cisco 2811 router, Catalyst 2560 switch, four PCs, three laptops, and a networked printer. Wireless LAN capability will be implemented on this network. Which two equipment types must be added to the BOM to implement this request? (Choose two.)
• DNS server
• LAN switch
• wireless NICs
• DHCP server
• wireless access points

14. A customer has just taken delivery of a Cisco 2811 router and Catalyst 3560 switch. Included with the purchase is the SMARTnet Service. Which two resources are included with SMARTnet Service? (Choose two.)
• signature file updates
• technical support from TAC
• maintenance releases for OS
• software application major releases
• software application maintenance and minor releases

15. A Cisco 1841 router has been purchased without an agreement for SMARTnet Service. What two items are guaranteed under the standard warranty? (Choose two.)
• access to TAC
• replacement of defective physical media
• advanced replacement of hardware parts
• access to a renewable standard warranty contract
• under normal use, replacement of defective hardware

16. Upon completion of a proposal, a network design team must sell their ideas to two key stakeholders. Who are these two stakeholders? (Choose two.)
• customers
• licensing boards
• cabling contractors
• internal management
• project implementation team

17. What are two important guidelines when creating a slide presentation for a meeting with a customer? (Choose two.)
• Use all capital letters on words and phrases when possible for added emphasis.
• Provide varied background graphics to enhance viewer interest.
• Use contrasting colors for background and text to aid visibility.
• Change fonts frequently to denote differences in subject matter.
• Use bulleted text to lead the discussion.

18. In order to finalize a project proposal, an account manager of a
• networking company creates the terms and conditions section. What are two clauses that should be included in this section? (Choose two.)
• cost summary
• installation steps
• change order procedures
• problem resolution process
• maintenance contract quotation

19. Which two items will a systems engineer include in an implementation plan? (Choose two.)
• references to design documents
• the business goals of the customer
• diagrams of the existing traffic flows
• the steps to install and test the network
• cost of each network device and component

20. Which statement describes a phased installation into an existing network?
• A phased installation generally takes less time and expense than a green-field installation.
• A phased installation is not suitable for large, multi-site network installations or upgrades.
• A phased installation requires detailed planning in order to avoid disruption of user services.
• A phased installation involves building an entire replacement network and migrating users over to it.

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 8 Exam Answers Version 4.0

2009-07-09T04:22:00.001-07:00

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 8 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Which mechanism is used to create a floating static route?
• administrative distance
• cost
• hop count
• passive interface

2. IPSec operates at which layer of the OSI model?
• application
• network
• datalink
• transport

3. Which is true regarding Frame Relay LMI?
• There are three LMI types standardized by ANSI, ITU-T, and Cisco.
• Routers at each end of a Frame Relay virtual circuit must always use the same LMI type.
• The LMI type must be manually configured.
• The only function of LMI is to verify the connection between the router and the Frame Relay switch.

4. Which statement identifies the IP address design for subinterfaces that are configured for a Frame Relay network?
• Multipoint configurations require the IP address of each subinterface on each router to be in its own subnet.
• Multipoint configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router to be a part of the same subnet.
• Point-to-point configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router to be a part of the same subnet.
• Point-to-point configurations do not require IP addresses on each subinterface on each router.
• Multipoint configurations do not require IP addresses on each subinterface on each router.

5. Which three algorithms can be used to encrypt user data in an IPSec VPN framework? (Choose three.)
• 3DES
• AES
• Diffie-Hellman
• DES
• ESP
• SHA

6. Which flag is set by a Frame Relay switch to inform the receiving station that congestion was experienced?
• BECN
• DE
• FECN
• FCS

7. Refer to the exhibit. The complete configuration of a Frame Relay interface on the Chicago router is shown. How does the Chicago router know which DLCI is mapped to the IP address of the remote router?
• DE
• CIR
• FECN
• Inverse ARP

8. What statement correctly defines the purpose of the split horizon rule?
• marks the route unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers
• prevents routers from advertising a network through the interface from which the update came
• prevents routers from accepting higher cost routes to networks previously marked as inaccessible before the timer expires
• limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

9. Which PVC status suggests that the router recognizes the DLCI configured on its interface as being present on the Frame Relay switch, but the PVC associated with the DLCI is not capable of end-to-end communication?
• active
• deleted
• inactive
• idle

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which router command is used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address?
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.1 110
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.1 112
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.2 110
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.2 112

11. A network administrator issued the command show frame-relay pvc. The response from the router shows the status of a PVC as deleted. What is the reason for this status?
• The DLCI is using the wrong LMI type.
• The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
• The DLCI is programmed in the switch but the circuit is not usable.
• The DLCI configured on the CPE device does not match the DLCI.

12. What is one benefit of using a network simulation software package?
• The network design can be tested before it is actually implemented.
• Simulation software packages are quickly updated to support new network technologies and devices.
• Simulated devices have the same features as actual devices, allowing for detection of all potential problems.
• Software packages can simulate all possible network traffic conditions, giving an accurate prediction of network performance.

13. What are two components a network designer considers when planning a VPN? (Choose two.)
• encryption algorithm for privacy and security
• encapsulation protocol to use when creating the VPN tunnel
• switching technology to optimize VPN WAN throughput
• tunneling technology for guarding against data corruption
• routing protocol on the gateway for optimum performance

14. When identifying VPN requirements for endpoint users, what care must be taken to protect the network when remote users log in from unsecured public locations?
• Ensure that the user has VPN client software that allows access to all internal resources.
• Ensure that the VPN user traffic does not slow down internally sourced traffic on the network.
• Ensure that there are no obstacles to hamper the users from accessing all internal resources.
• Ensure that remote users can only access network resources that are appropriate to their job function.

15. Which two components are key elements when implementing a VPN? (Choose two.)
• concentration
• encryption
• prioritization
• compression
• encapsulation

16. What tool can help ease the configuration of VPN servers on routers?
• Cisco SDM
• PIX Firewall
• Cisco VPN Concentrator
• Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances

17. What is used to identify the path to the next frame-relay switch in a Frame Relay network?
• CIR
• DLCI
• FECN
• BECN

18. Which two statements are true regarding VPN security? (Choose two.)
• Users may only establish a VPN connection from secure locations and never from public areas.
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN do not have to log in to resources on the network.
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN are are considered trusted users on the network.
• Users may establish a VPN connection from unsecure locations such as airports and hotel lobbies.
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN should have access to all the resources on the network.

19. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the Orlando office to the DC office?
• MAC address of the Orlando router
• MAC address of the DC router
• 192.168.1.25
• 192.168.1.26
• DLCI 100
• DLCI 200

20. Two directly connected routers are able to ping each other through the Serial 0/0/0 interfaces. A network administrator changes the encapsulation on one router to PPP, and the other is left at the default value. What statement would appear in the output of the show interfaces command issued on one of the routers?
• Serial 0/0/0 is up, line protocol is up
• Serial 0/0/0 is down, line protocol is down
• Serial 0/0/0 is up, line protocol is down
• Serial 0/0/0 is down, line protocol is up
• Serial 0/0/0 is administratively down, line protocol is down

21. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration shown for R2?
• R2 is configured as the Frame Relay switch.
• R2 is configured as the main site in a multipoint Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as the main site in a point-to-point Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as a remote site in a multipoint Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as a remote site in a point-to-point Frame Relay WAN prototype.

22. A company uses serial interfaces on its border router to connect to branch offices through WAN connections. The security policy dictates that the encapsulation should use PPP with authentication protocol CHAP. Which statement is true about the configuration requirement of CHAP?
• Both the username and password are case sensitive.
• Neither the username nor the password is case sensitive.
• The username is case sensitive but the password is not case sensitive.
• The password is case sensitive but the username is not case sensitive.

23. Which two statements about split tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
• Local LAN printing will use the VPN tunnel.
• The traffic load on the VPN server is increased.
• Traffic to the corporate network will be encrypted.
• There is a reduced security risk to the corporate network.
• All traffic travels across the VPN tunnel from client to server.
• Traffic to public web sites and general Internet navigation is not encrypted.

24. An IP address has been assigned to the S0/0/0 interface of a new Cisco router. The administrator wishes to quickly test basic connectivity with the serial interface of an adjoining Cisco router via the use of the default WAN protocol. Which WAN protocol will be used for this test?
• PPP
• Frame Relay
• DSL
• HDLC
• ATM

25. Which two statements about split tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
• Local LAN printing will use the VPN tunnel.
• The traffic load on the VPN server is increased.
• Traffic to the corporate network will be encrypted.
• There is a reduced security risk to the corporate network.
• All traffic travels across the VPN tunnel from client to server.
• Traffic to public web sites and general Internet navigation is not encrypted.

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 7 Exam Answers Version 4.0

2009-07-09T04:21:00.002-07:00

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 7 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. A network engineer has decided to pilot test a portion of a new network design rather than rely on a prototype for proof-of-concept. What are two advantages of pilot testing a design concept?(Choose two.)
• The test network experiences real-world network traffic.
• Users within the enterprise are not affected by the test.
• Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.
• Unlikely failure conditions can be conveniently tested.
• Network response can be tested in a highly controlled simulated environment.

2. While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial and modified device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains this information?
• Appendix
• Test Procedures
• Test Description
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the specification shown. In which section of the test plan would this specification be found?
• Test Description
• Test Procedures
• Design and Topology Diagram
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria

4. What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when prototyping network security?
• a firewall at the network edge
• port security at the access design layer
• port security at the distribution design layer
• IP access control lists at the access design layer

5. How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype test?
• They select the functions that align with the business goals.
• They select the functions that occur at the network core.
• They select the functions that do not exist in the existing network.
• They select the functions from a list of generic network operations.

6. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity must be verified. Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, on which device was the command issued?
• R1
• S1
• R3
• S2
• R5
• S3

7. Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based on the output shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)
• Switch1 is the root bridge.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 has no role in the operation of spanning tree.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.
• Based on the entries in the "Role" column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been implemented.
• Interface Fa0/1 on Switch1 is the forwarding port selected for the entire spanning-tree topology.

8. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
• root
• backup
• alternate
• designated

9. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing, verification of VLAN connectivity is being performed. Based on the information shown, what command produced the output?
• show spanning-tree
• show interfaces trunk
• show cdp neighbors
• show interfaces
• show ip interface brief

10. Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/24?
• Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport nonegotiate command from interface configuration mode.
• Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to the default.
• Enter the no switchport mode trunk command in interface configuration mode.
• Use the switchport access vlan vlan number command from interface configuration mode
• to remove the port from the trunk and add it to a specific VLAN.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the routing protocol in use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?
• EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links.
• EIGRP load balances across the R1 to Switch3 and R2 to Switch3 paths.
• EIGRP load balances across the Switch1 to Switch3 and Switch1 to Switch2 paths.
• EIGRP does not load balance in this topology.

12. A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows efficient route summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a design. What is useful for validating a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?
• NBAR
• a pilot network
• a route summary
• a network simulator
• a physical topology ma

13. In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?
• the metric used for a particular route
• the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface
• the priority number given to the device for the election process
• the number that must match the Fast Ethernet subinterface number
• the number used to program the router for unequal cost path load balancing

14. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed Internet access. The network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and tested. Where should the ACL be placed for the least effect on other network traffic?
• inbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R2
• outbound on S0/0 of R2

15. Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of weakness circled in the network design? (Choose two.)
• Provide redundant connections to all end users.
• Add another core switch to increase redundancy.
• Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.
• Add an additional switch to the DMZ and direct links from the new switch to the core switches.
• Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and the DMZ.

16. Why is it important to record baseline measurements of a prototype network?
• Test results show security weaknesses after the baseline tests are run.
• The baseline is the point at which the network is operating at its fullest potential.
• Baseline measurements define a point at which network traffic has exceeded the designed capabilities of the network.
• Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase processor use or decrease available bandwidth.

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a design for a temporary classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded school. In testing the prototype, it is found that the student PC cannot ping the teacher PC. All the switch interfaces are active and connected properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given that only the commands shown have bee added to the router configuration, what is the source of the problem?
• The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.
• The default gateway on the teacher PC is misconfigured.
• The router Fa0/0 interface has not been configured as a VLAN trunk.
• The Fa0/0 physical interface has not been configured with an IP address and subnet mask.
• The administrator forgot to configure a routing protocol to allow the ping packets to reach the teacher PC subnet.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this switch output?
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are shutdown.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are blocking.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 failed diagnostics

19. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a new switch in the east wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the connections to the network, and adds the configuration shown. The technician notifies the network administrator that the switch has been installed. When the network administrator at the home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1, the connection fails. What action should the network technician take?
• Add an enable password to the switch.
• Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.
• Configure the switch with an IP access list to permit the host connection.
• Enable the physical interfaces of the switch with the no shutdown command.

20. Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree state of all the enabled interfaces of SW11?
• discarding
• forwarding
• learning
• listening

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 6 Exam Answers Version 4.0

2009-07-09T04:21:00.001-07:00

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 6 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. A network engineer researched whether there are mechanisms available to help with the transition from an IPv4 addressing structure to IPv6. What three options did the engineer find?(Choose three.)
• A protocol translation mechanism allows communication between the IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
• A packet analyzer determines the addressing structure and converts it to the appropriate IPv4 or IPv6 scheme.
• New Core devices that support IPV6 must be purchased.
• A protocol converter changes IPv4 packets into IPv6 packets and vice versa.
• A dual-stack network design allows both IPv4 and IPv6 addressing to be used on all network devices.
• Tunneling allows IPv4 packets to be encapsulated so that they can traverse IPv6 networks and vice versa.

2. When should the command no auto-summary be used?
• with RIP version 1, to enable classless routing
• with RIP version 2, to enable classless routing
• with RIP version 1, when discontigous networks exist
• with RIP version 2, when discontigous networks exist

3. Refer to the exhibit. What must an administrator do on R3 to ensure that update packets are sent with subnet mask information?
• Add the commands:
R3(config-router)# auto-summary
R3(config-router)# no version 2
• Add the commands:
R3(config-router)# version 2
R3(config-router)# no auto-summary
• Change the network statement on R3:
R3(config)# network 10.10.4.0
• Add the command:
R3(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0

4. What best describes a discontiguous network?
• combines several classfull networking address
• contains more than one route to a destination
• implements more than one routing protocol
• separated from the rest of the hierarchical group by another network

5. Refer to the exhibit. A company has decided to add a new workgroup. If the subnetting scheme for the network uses contiguous blocks of addresses, what subnet is assigned to WGROUP3?
• 172.16.3.12/29
• 172.16.3.16/29
• 172.16.3.20/29
• 172.16.3.24/29
• 172.16.3.32/29

6. A network administrator is using the 10.0.0.0/8 network for the company. The administrator must create a masking scheme to support 750 users at the main office and 620 users at the remote office. What mask should be assigned to the 10.0.0.0/8 network to preserve the most addresses?
• 255.255.255.0
• /19
• /20
• 255.255.252.0
• /23
• /21

7. What is another format for the IPv6 address 1080:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:1267:01A2?
• 1080::1267:01A2
• 1080:0:0:0:0:1267:01A2
• 1080::0:1267:01A2
• 1080:::::1267.01A2

8. How many bits make up an IPv6 address?
• 32
• 48
• 64
• 128

9. After activating IPv6 traffic forwarding, configuring IPv6 addresses, and globally configure RIPng, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then specify which interfaces run RIPng, which are passive, and which only receive.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable RIPng with the ipv6 rip name enable command.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.
• Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command.
• RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.

10. Refer to the exhibit. The IT management has determined that the new subnet for WGROUP3 needs to be broken down into four more subnets. What would the subnet mask be for the four newly created subnets within WGROUP3?
• 255.255.128.0
• 255.255.192.0
• 255.255.224.0
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.252.0

11. Refer to the exhibit. What is the first usable IP address that can be assigned to the WGROUP3 switch?
• 172.16.50.96/27
• 172.16.50.97/27
• 172.16.50.98/27
• 172.16.50.99/27
• 255.255.255.0

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of router commands is required to turn on unequal-cost load sharing so that RTRA selects the path A-B-E and the lowest cost path A-C-E to the Internet?
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# variance 2
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# variance 1
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# maximum-paths 2
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# maximum-paths 1

13. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the default EIGRP configuration is running on both routers, which statement is true about Router A reaching the 2.2.2.0/24 network?
• The no auto-summary command needs to be issued to disable automatic summarization.
• The network 2.2.2.0 command needs to be issued to ensure that Router A recognizes the 2.2.2.0 network.
• EIGRP supports VLSM and automatically recognizes the 2.2.2.0 network.
• EIGRP does not support VLSM; therefore it cannot be used with discontiguous networks.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants router RTA to send only the summarized route of 10.10.0.0/16 to RTC. Which configuration accomplishes this?
• RTA(config)# interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
RTA(config-if)# exit
RTA(config)# router eigrp 101
RTA(config-router)# no auto-summary
• RTA(config)# interface s0/1
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
RTA(config-if)# exit
RTA(config)# router eigrp 101
RTA(config-router)# no auto-summary
• RTA(config)# interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
• RTA(config)# interface s0/1
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0

15. What is a good design practice when developing a hierarchical addressing scheme?
• Address the nodes in the Access Layer and work toward the Core Layer.
• Assign addresses to the Core devices before planning the addressing scheme for the server farm.
• Determine where statically configured addressing will be implemented.
• Determine what percentage of devices are wired and what percentage of devices are wireless.

16. A network administrator is asked to design a new addressing scheme for a corporate network. Presently, there are 850 users at the head office, 220 users at sales, 425 at manufacturing, and 50 at the research site. Which statement defines the correct VLSM addressing map with minimal waste using the 172.17.0.0/16 network?
• 172.17.0.0/20 head office
172.17.1.0/21 manufacturing
172.17.1.0/22 sales
172.17.3.0/26 research
• 172.17.48.0/19 head office
172.17.16.0/20 manufacturing
172.17.48.128/25 sales
172.17.48.0/26 research
• 172.17.0.0/22 head office
172.17.4.0/23 manufacturing
172.17.5.0/24 sales
172.17.6.0/26 research
• 172.17.2.0/22 head office
172.17.3.0/23 manufacturing
172.17.4.0/26 sales
172.17.4.128/25 research

16. How would the routes for networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.15.0/24 be summarized?
• 172.16.0.0/20
• 172.16.0.0/21
• 172.16.0.0/22
• 172.16.0.0/24

17. What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
• dynamic address assignment
• automatic route redistribution
• reduced routing update traffic
• easier management of summarization
• automatic summarization at classfull boundaries

18. Which statement describes MD5 authentication for neighbor authentication?
• All passwords are sent in clear text when neighbors first learn about each other.
• Only the initiating router sends its password using encrypted text when it first discovers a new router.
• All routers send their password using encrypted text only when they first learn of each other.
• All routers send their password using encrypted text each time they exchange update packets.

19. Refer to the exhibit. What are the broadcast addresses for each subnet?
• Admin - 172.16.31.0
QA - 172.16.1.127
Development - 172.16.2.255
Sales - 172.16.32.255
• Admin - 172.16.31.255
QA - 172.16.1.255
Development - 172.16.3.255
Sales - 172.16.63.255
• Admin - 172.16.31.255
QA - 172.16.1.127
Development - 172.16.3.255
Sales - 172.16.63.255
• Admin - 172.16.31.0
QA - 172.16.1.255
Development - 172.16.2.255
Sales - 172.16.32.255

20. Refer to the exhibit. The IT management is adding three VLANs to the wgroup3 switch. The current subnet will be broken down to support 14 hosts for each of the new VLANs. What will the new subnet mask be for these VLANs?
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.255.248

21. An administrator is configuring IPv6 on a router. The steps that have already been completed are:
1. Activate IPv6 traffic forwarding.
2. Configure IPv6 addresses.
3. Globally configure RIPng.
What is the remaining step to complete the activation of RIPng?
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then specify which interfaces run RIPng, which are passive, and which only receive.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable RIPng with the ipv6 rip name enable command.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.
• Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command. RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.

22. Which range includes all available networks in the 192.168.8.0/21 network?
• 192.168.8.0/24 - 192.168.14.0/24
• 192.168.8.0/24 - 192.168.15.0/24
• 192.168.8.0/24 - 192.168.16.0/24
• 192.168.8.0/24 - 192.168.17.0/24

23. Which two are best practices for creating a new IP addressing scheme for a network? (Choose two.)
• Plan and allow for significant growth.
• Assign addresses to the access layer before any other layer.
• Plan the entire addressing scheme before assigning any addresses.
• Begin with the access layer network summary addresses and work to the edge.
• Plan the addressing scheme to meet the current minimum requirement needs.
• Implement statically assigned addresses to all hosts in the distribution layer first.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet will provide sufficient addresses for the Production network with minimal waste?
• 172.16.0.192/26
• 172.16.0.192/27
• 172.16.0.224/26
• 172.16.0.160/26
• 172.16.0.144/27

25. A network designer is implementing a new network for a company. The designer is using all new Cisco equipment and has decided to select a hierarchical routing protocol for the network. The designer wishes to minimize traffic from routing updates but also needs fast routing convergence in the event of a topology change. Also, the existing IP addressing scheme requires that the selected protocol support VLSM. Which routing protocol should be chosen?
• BGP
• RIP v1
• RIP v2
• OSPF
• EIGRP

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 5 Exam Answers Version 4.0

2009-07-09T04:20:00.001-07:00

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 5 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Which rule should be followed when implementing the security requirements of a network design?
• Always use a common security plan for all business needs.
• As standard practice, lower access restrictions for users if cost is too high.
• Avoid reducing security in order to add additional network capabilities.
• When possible, implement an IDS to protect users from spam.

2. What limitations of the 2960 switch prevent it from providing the services needed in the Distribution layer?
• It is limited to copper connections.
• It does not support QoS.
• It does not support voice VLAN capability.
• It does not support route summarization.

3. When considering converged network designs, it is important to identify appropriate service demands. What is a concern when preparing a network design to fit this environment?
• business data compensation for sensitivity to noise
• location and placement of firewalls
• voice-level quality of service
• security policy requirements

4. Which three design requirements are implemented at the access layer? (Choose three.)
• PoE
• VLANs
• high-density routing
• packet filtering
• rapidly converging routing protocols
• QoS traffic classification and marking

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding how the ISP router filters traffic?
• Traffic from the 64.100.0.1 address to any destination on the Internet is denied.
• Traffic from any source address entering the ISP router interface s0/0/0 is permitted.
• Only traffic with a source address of 64.100.0.1/30 is allowed into the ISP router interface s0/0/0.
• All traffic from the 64.100.0.0/21 network can access the Internet.
• Traffic from any source address can access the 64.100.0.0/21 network.

6. Which two factors should be considered when designing a wireless LAN that provides seamless roaming capabilities? (Choose two.)
• use of a wireless controller to manage IP addressing
• type of routing protocols
• location of existing wired clients
• coverage
• position of MDF

7. What are three features of a Catalyst 2960 switch? (Choose three.)
• network layer functionality
• redundant power availability
• route summarization
• SNMP
• switch clustering
• inter-VLAN routing

8. A company lists this equipment in their network design:
Two Catalyst 4503 Layer 3 switches
One 5500 security appliance firewall
Two Catalyst 6509 switches
Two lightweight access points
Two Catalyst 2960 switches
Which two types of devices would be appropriate to use at the access layer to provide end-user connectivity? (Choose two.)
• Catalyst 4503 switches
• Cisco 1841 router
• Catalyst 6509 switches
• lightweight access points
• Catalyst 2960 switches

9. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
• access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
• FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• All traffic is implicitly denied.
• FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
• Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.

10. Which statement applies to a large network with thousands of nodes?
• Each wireless phone is normally in a separate VLAN for security reasons.
• Multiple firewalls exist throughout the access layer for maximum security protection.
• Firewalls cannot be implemented in the multilayer switches and routers.
• Intrusion detection is more likely to be performed by a separate device rather than integrated into a switch or router

11. on campus. The college currently has only wired network device access. Which two devices must be incorporated into the network design to best accommodate roaming for wireless IP phones?(Choose two.)
• voice VLAN capable switch
• autonomous AP
• PoE switch
• Cisco wireless LAN controller
• 2960 switch with 48 100-Mb ports
• lightweight access points

12. What type of WAN service is Frame Relay?
• dedicated
• cell switched
• packet switched
• circuit switched

13. Refer to the exhibit. What is an advantage of having two links connected between the two switches shown?
• provides redundancy in case one of the switches fails
• provides connectivity to Switch1 when the link to the server fails
• provides connectivity when one of the connections between the switches fails
• provides power to the other switch when the other switch has lost AC power

14. What is the function of the access layer in the Cisco three-layer hierarchical internetworking model?
• provides QoS classification and marking
• implements a fast-converging routing protocol
• uses routed interconnections between devices
• aggregates traffic and performs route summarization

15. When applying network security, what security measure should be implemented first?
• securing the network devices
• implementing the firewalls or filters at the enterprise edge
• applying security to resources accessed by internal users
• applying ACLs to the interfaces of the routers in the internal network

16. What characteristic of a network supports high availability?
• VPNs
• high-bandwidth paths to servers
• redundancy
• wireless management

17. What is integrated into a Cisco IP phone to reduce the number of ports needed in the wiring closet?
• hub
• router
• switch
• firewall appliance

18. Which network design process identifies where to place access points?
• site survey
• risk assessment
• scalability design
• network protocol analysis

19. Using expandable, modular network devices is a key element of what network design criteria?
• availability
• performance
• scalability
• security

20. What is a primary function of a wireless LAN controller?
• tuning each AP channel for optimal coverage
• providing PoE to the wireless clients
• distributing VLAN information to the wireless clients
• serving as the point of connection between wireless clients and the wired LAN

21. What characteristic in a routing protocol allows it to support the network design criteria for availability?
• CIDR support
• fast convergence
• timed updates
• VLSM suppor

22. A network designer is evaluating the network security implementation for an organization. The designer recommends adding network security devices in front of the server farm, although network security devices have been deployed in the Enterprise Edge for two years. What type of attack can be effectively prevented with this recommendation?
• virus attack
• internal attack
• Internet attack
• phishing attack

23. Refer to the exhibit. The branch office needs constant access to the servers in the enterprise headquarters. Therefore, a backup Frame Relay link is added. A network
• administrator is configuring the routers in the branch office to make sure that when the backup Frame Relay link is used, only the traffic to access the enterprise headquarters is allowed. Which statement is true about the routing configuration on branch office edge routers?
• The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE2.
• The command ip route 128.107.0.0 255.255.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE1.
• The command ip route 128.107.0.0 255.255.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE2.
• The command ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE1.

24. An automobile sales company is establishing a new, small sales showroom in a downtown area. To update the inventory database, the new sales office will need a WAN connection to the headquarters that is located in the suburban area. The WAN connection should be around a 4 Mb/s connection. Which WAN service will provide the most economical approach to meet the requirement?
• DSL
• ATM
• T1 line
• Frame Relay

25. A network designer is selecting a WAN technology for connections between the headquarters of an organization and its branch offices. In this context, what is one advantage of choosing Frame Relay over a T1 line?
• more secure
• flexible bandwidth
• shared media across the link
• efficiency with fixed length packet size

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 4 Exam Answers Version 4.0

2009-07-09T04:19:00.002-07:00

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 4 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. In addition to the technical considerations, what other major factor is used to evaluate the success of a network installation?
• final project costs
• maintenance costs
• user satisfaction
• statistics describing the performance of network devices

2. Which two network applications are most affected by network congestion and delays? (Choose two.)
• IP telephony
• live video webcasts
• audio file downloads
• online banking services
• file archival and retrieval

3. What two Cisco tools can be used to analyze network application traffic? (Choose two.)
• NBAR
• NetFlow
• AutoQoS
• Wireshark
• Custom Queuing

4. In network design, which technology can be implemented to prioritize traffic based on its importance and technical requirements?
• STP
• QoS
• RTP
• TCP
• VPN

5. What are two characteristics of voice over IP traffic? (Choose two.)
• Voice packets tend to be small.
• Voice packets must be processed in real time.
• Voice packets can effectively use TCP reliability features.
• Voice traffic can survive packet drops and retransmission delays.
• Voice packets must be converted to analog before being sent across the IP network.
• Voice packets automatically receive a higher priority value than other types of packets.

6. What are two things that a network designer can do to determine current and anticipated network traffic flows? (Choose two.)
• Survey end users to obtain customer input.
• Upgrade the Cisco IOS software in all networking devices to optimize traffic flow.
• Limit the analysis to host-to-server traffic because host-to-host traffic is unimportant.
• Run a network traffic analysis to determine which applications are in use and by whom.
• Conduct an inventory of all networking devices that includes model numbers and memory configurations

7. A company that has a traditional telephone system wants to convert to IP telephony. Which two factors should be considered for the design? (Choose two.)
• Digital communications systems have greater noise than analog systems when processing voice traffic.
• Voice-enabled routers or a server must be used for call control and signaling.
• Voice to IP conversions can cause router overhead.
• Power to the phones can be supplied through properly equipped patch panels or switches.
• The cost to combine voice and data VLANs can be a considerable amount.

8. Several web and email servers have recently been installed as part of an enterprise network. The security administrator has been asked to provide a summary of security features that can be implemented to help prevent unauthorized traffic from being sent into or out of sensitive internal networks. Which three features should the security administrator recommend? (Choose three.)
• firewalls
• priority queuing
• access control lists
• intrusion detection systems
• DHCP
• 128-bit WEP

9. The design of an IP telephony system needs to meet the technical requirements to provide a connection to the PSTN as well as provide high-quality voice transmissions using the campus network. Which two elements directly affect the ability of the design to meet these requirements?(Choose two.)
• voice-enabled firewall
• PoE switches and patch panels
• redundant backbone connectivity
• voice-enabled router at the enterprise edge
• separate voice and data VLANs with QoS implemented

10. When implementing VoIP services, which two design considerations should be followed?(Choose two.)
• Confirm that network jitter is minimal.
• Use TCP to reduce delays and dropped packets.
• Establish priority queuing to ensure that large data packets are sent uninterrupted.
• Disable real-time protocols to reduce queuing strategy demands.
• Ensure that packet delays do not exceed 150 ms.

11. What design strategy should be followed when designing a network that uses video on demand?
• implement the appropriate routing protocol to ensure that data segments arrive in order
• implement different QoS queues based on the type of video traffic being distributed
• install servers to store the data in a centrally located server farm
• configure queuing in the core routers to ensure high availability

12. When implementing QoS in traffic queues, what is the first step the designer should take to ensure that traffic is properly prioritized?
• define QoS policies
• define traffic classes
• determine traffic patterns
• identify traffic requirements
• identify networking equipment

13. Which two statements are characteristics of file transfer traffic flows? (Choose two.)
• RTP should be used.
• Traffic is predictable.
• Packets are small in size.
• Transfers are throughput intensive.
• Response-time requirements are low.

14. Which two items can be determined by diagramming internal traffic flow? (Choose two.)
• the type of ISP services needed
• the capabilities of end-user devices
• the areas where network congestion may occur
• the location of VPN servers used to connect teleworkers
• locations where high-bandwidth connections are required

15. Which two traffic types are examples of external traffic flows? (Choose two.)
• A user in the IT department telnets to the core layer router.
• A user in marketing connects to the web server of a competitor.
• A user in the IT department telnets into the access layer switch.
• A user in the services department logs in to a web-based email program.
• A user in accounting connects to an FTP server that is connected to the access layer switch.

16. Which service can be provided by the NetFlow Cisco utility?
• network planning and mapping
• IDS and IPS capabilities
• peak usage times and traffic routing
• network billing and accounting application
• security and user account restrictions
• source and destination UDP port mapping

17. Refer to the exhibit. If ACL 150 identifies only voice traffic from network 192.168.10.0/24 and no other traffic, which queue will voice traffic from other networks use?
• high
• normal
• medium
• default

18. Refer to the exhibit. After configuring QoS, a network administrator issues the command show queueing interface s0/1. What two pieces of information can an administrator learn from the output of this command? (Choose two.)
• queue traffic definitions
• priority list protocol assignments
• type of queuing being implemented
• number of packets placed in each queue
• queuing defaults that have been changed
• queuing has not been applied to this interface

19. An analysis of network protocols reveals that RTP and RTCP are being used. What uses these protocols?
• IDS
• VPN
• WLAN
• firewall
• real-time video

20. A company is considering adding voice and video to the data networks. Which two statements are true if voice and video are added? (Choose two.)
• PoE switches must be purchased.
• More UDP-based traffic flows will be evident.
• Response times will be increased even if QoS is implemented.
• QoS will most likely be implemented to prioritize traffic flows.
• VPNs will most likely be implemented to protect the voice traffic.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the terms on top with its definition on the bottom?
• A=1, B=3, C=2, D=4
• A=2, B=1, C=4, D=3
• A=2, B=4, C=1, D=3
• A=3, B=2, C=4, D=1
• A=4, B=3, C=1, D=2
• A=4, B=2, C=3, D=1

22. A database server is configured to purge all data that is 60 days old. Ten data items that are 60 days old are to be purged. However, there is a failure halfway through the transaction, and the entire transaction is voided. What type of transaction action occurred?
• atomic
• consistent
• durable
• isolated

23. What is the primary goal of QoS?
• classification of traffic
• filtering and queuing voice traffic
• reducing bandwidth requirements
• providing priority service to selected traffic

24. Which technology provides a mechanism for implementing QoS at Layer 2?
• ToS
• CoS
• DSCP
• IP precedence

25. A customer purchases tickets online and pays using a credit card, but the system goes down before the transaction is complete. What transaction type retains a record of this transaction after the system failure so that the customer will still receive the tickets and the credit card account will be debited accordingly?
• atomic
• consistent
• durable
• isolated

26. Refer to the exhibit. The network design documents include requirements to prevent switching loops, to provide link-specific failover, and to provide Layer 3 recovery. Which two protocols would be needed to provide the support? (Choose two.)
• HDLC
• HSRP
• PPP
• RSTP
• VTP

27. network design must minimize latency to support real-time streaming applications. Which two protocols enable control and scalability of the network resources and minimize latency by incorporating QoS mechanisms? (Choose two.)
• RTCP
• HSRP
• RSTP
• RTP
• RPC

28. Which two major differences are associated with IP telephony when compared to traditional telephony that uses a PBX? (Choose two.)
• manages phones centrally
• utilizes centralized call routing
• creates peer-to-peer relationships between phones
• requires a separate infrastructure to support data transfer
• requires significant manual configuration when adding, moving, or changing phones

29. When QoS is implemented in a converged network, which two factors can be controlled to improve performance? (Choose two.)
• link speed
• delay
• packet routing
• jitter
• packet addressing

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 3 Exam Answers Version 4.0

2009-07-09T04:19:00.001-07:00

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 3 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. It is important to identify the details of network sections and devices that will be affected or involved in a new design. This information is included in which section of the Network Design Requirements Document?
• Project Goal
• Project Scope
• Technical Requirements
• Current State of the Network

2. Which two pieces of information does the network designer need to determine if the Cisco IOS of a router requires an upgrade? (Choose two.)
• amount of NVRAM installed
• model number of the router
• number of interfaces and installed HWICs
• installed Cisco IOS feature set and version
• error statistics for each interface

3. Which three pieces of information need to be considered when selecting the proper Cisco IOS version for an upgrade? (Choose three.)
• processor ID
• interface type
• amount of DRAM
• bootstrap version
• device make and model
• size of system flash memory

4. What are two practices a network technician should follow when installing a new interface card in a router? (Choose two.)
• Be sure the interface card faceplate does not touch the chassis rear panel.
• Do not tighten the captive screws until the router has been powered on and recognizes the card.
• Store the blank faceplate inside the card slot to be used if the card is removed.
• Handle the interface card by the edges to avoid static discharge.
• Push the interface card into place until the edge connector is seated securely

5. The new serial interface card for the router arrives and the network technician reads that it is hotswappable. What does this mean?
• The card cannot be installed while the router is powered on because static discharge could damage the card.
• The card cannot be installed until the router is powered off and completely cooled down.
• The card can be installed while the router is powered on if the router supports this technology.
• The card is a replacement and must be installed in the same slot as the card it is replacing.

6. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the command shown to gain knowledge about a poorly documented network. Which two pieces of information can the network administrator discover from the command output? (Choose two.)
• One connected device has router capability.
• The entire network contains a total of five Cisco devices with CDP enabled.
• None of the directly connected network devices have been configured with an IP address.
• Device EDGE_2811 is connected to port Fast Ethernet 0/0 on device C3750-24_MDF.
• Five Cisco devices with CDP enabled are directly connected to device C3750-24_MDF

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which of the three Cisco IOS images shown will load into RAM?
• The router selects an image depending on the value of the configuration register.
• The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it is the most recent IOS image.
• The router selects the second Cisco IOS image because it is the smallest IOS image.
• The router selects an image depending on the boot system command in the configuration.
• The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it contains the advipservicesk9 image.

8. An administrator wants to download a new Cisco IOS software version to the local router. Which command performs this task?
• copy tftp flash
• copy flash run
• copy start tftp
• copy flash tftp
• copy tftp start

9. Refer to the exhibit. The top of the output shows the Cisco Feature Navigator regarding a Cisco IOS image that the administrator wants to install on a router. Below it is the output from the show version command for that router. Which statement is true regarding the capacity of the router to run this Cisco IOS image?
• There is not enough DRAM and flash.
• There is enough DRAM and flash.
• There is enough DRAM but not enough flash.
• There is enough flash but not enough DRAM.

10. Which two items are objectives of a WLAN design site survey? (Choose two.)
• identify coverage areas
• determine primary AP locations
• determine what AP equipment should be purchased
• determine how many users will access the WLAN
• identify the bottleneck of the LAN infrastructure

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions improve the weaknesses of the topology shown, assuming that each access layer segment is in its own subnet? (Choose two.)
• Implement redundant links to each server by adding additional NICs.
• Implement a reduntant link from all access layer switches to Admin, Dist, and Server Farm.
• Implement a backup firewall with a link to a secondary ISP and implement a redundant link to the DMZ.
• Implement reduntant links from the existing firewall to all access layer switches.
• Implement redundant links from the DMZ to Admin and Dist.

12. A company is beginning to analyze their new Cisco IOS upgrade requirements. What is one of the router components that a network administrator must consider when selecting a new Cisco IOS version?
• processor type
• storage space in NVRAM
• interfaces and modules to be supported
• compatibility of the bootstrap version with the new Cisco IOS software

13. An employee at a company notices that the wireless signal strength indicator on his laptop fluctuates from good to low. The network administrator decides to do a site survey of that area. Which three factors need to be included in the survey? (Choose three.)
• type and model number of the WNIC of the laptop
• number of users in the area
• location of the AP
• list of MAC addresses filtered by the AP
• number of simultaneous applications running on the laptop of the employee
• location of walls and filing cabinets in the office

14. The new network design for AnyCompany must include support of voice and video traffic. Before upgrading, the network designer checks whether the existing devices can support the new requirements. Which three items does the designer need to check? (Choose three.)
• number of routers and switches owned by AnyCompany
• routers that will support extra ASICs and WWICs
• size of DRAM and flash on each device
• routers that will support HWICs and VWICs
• system bootstrap version on each router and switch
• modules supported on the loaded Cisco IOS

15. A new Cisco IOS version has been copied into flash from a TFTP server. When a reload is issued to upgrade the Cisco IOS, the router freezes part of the way through the loading process. What could be the problem?
• There is enough flash but not enough RAM in the router.
• The new HWIC cards have not been installed yet.
• The TFTP server needs to be present during a reload.
• The new Cisco IOS should have been loaded into NVRAM.
• The new bootstrap version is not compatible with the original version on the router.

16. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer has no documentation and is attempting to create a logical diagram of the network using the output from show commands. What can be determined from the output shown?
• The device with the ID of ISP is a router on the Internet.
• The attached switch is a VTP server in the Toronto domain.
• The designer cannot telnet to the attached switch.
• The Cisco router IOS supports enterprise-level voice and video technologies.

17. A production router is reloaded and finishes with a Router> prompt. What three facts can be determined? (Choose three.)
• POST occurred normally.
• The boot process was interrupted.
• There is not enough RAM or flash on this router.
• A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded.
• A configuration file was not located in NVRAM or from a TFTP server.
• The router did not locate the Cisco IOS in flash, so it defaulted to ROM.

18. During a site survey, the network designer noticed that people were accessing the company wireless network from the parking lot. What should be done to stop the wireless signal from radiating out into the parking lot?
• change the channel on the wireless AP
• connect the wireless AP to a firewall
• change the type of antenna attached to the AP
• move the wireless AP to a secure VLAN
• move the wireless AP to a port on a Layer 3 switch

19. A network design project includes a review of the existing network. What is the purpose of this phase of the project?
• eliminate the need for a site survey
• shorten the timeframe of the project
• lower the cost of the project by removing redundant links and devices
• determine if the number of applications used within the company can be reduced
• To determine what existing network devices require upgrades to meet the new

20. Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the Cisco IOS file naming convention, what is represented by the value ipvoicek9 listed in the IOS filename?
• version
• file format
• feature set
• hardware platform

21. Refer to the exhibit. What two items can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)
• R2 is a Cisco 2600 device.
• R2 has 22 MB of RAM installed.
• The version of the IOS is 12.3.
• Over 8 MB of NVRAM is installed.
• A new 36 MB IOS file can be installed on the device.

22. During a wireless site survey, a consultant is determining the hours of peak usage and the estimated number of users in each location. The consultant is currently in what step of the site survey process?
• the defining of customer requirements
• the identification of coverage areas
• the determining of preliminary AP locations
• the measurement of signal strength

23. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is attempting to install a new version of the IOS on R2. Based on the exhibited output, what are two possible reasons that the transfer failed?(Choose two.)
• The administrator did not enable TFTP on R2.
• There is not enough flash available to store the new IOS.
• Connectivity between R2 and the TFTP server was not verified.
• The copy command was incorrectly entered.
• The administrator did not verify that the TFTP server is running.

24. In which section of the Network Design Requirements document would a network consulting team detail names and IP addresses of important networking components and servers, provide network diagrams and topologies, and define strengths and weaknesses of the network?
• network requirements
• project scope
• overall project goal
• state of the network

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 2 Exam Answers Version 4.0

2009-07-09T04:18:00.000-07:00

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 2 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. During an evaluation of the currently installed network, the IT staff performs a gap analysis to determine whether the existing network infrastructure can support the desired new features. At which stage of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach does this activity occur?
• Prepare Phase
• Plan Phase
• Design Phase
• Implement Phase
• Operate Phase
• Optimize Phase

2. Which stage of the Cisco Lifecycle Services strategy is usually completed before an organization issues a Request For Proposal (RFP) or Request For Quotation (RFQ)?
• Prepare Phase
• Plan Phase
• Design Phase
• Implement Phase
• Operate Phase
• Optimize Phase

3. What is the purpose of SNMP?
• to facilitate the exchange of information between devices and the NMS
• to monitor and control managed network devices
• to report user logins to a monitoring station
• to verify traffic throughout the network and keep a log of all activity

4. During an analysis of a customer network, several possible opportunities for network improvement are identified. At which stage of the Cisco Lifecycle Services does this process occur?
• Prepare Phase
• Plan Phase
• Design Phase
• Implement Phase
• Optimize Phase
• Operate Phase

5. What provides the initial data for the Optimize Phase?
• performance monitoring
• business goals
• technical goals
• RFP

6. Which two statements are true regarding the response to an RFQ?(Choose two.)
• The response should be brief.
• it should strictly conform to the formatting requirements specified by the RFQ.
• Only the items that the contracting company will be addressing should be answered.
• The response helps the customer compare pricing with other potential contractors.
• The response is more complicated than a response to a RFP.

7. What are two disadvantages of using a bottom-up approach instead of a top-down approach to network design? (Choose two.)
• It can result in an inappropriate network design.
• A new design cannot be implemented right away.
• It does not take into account the business goals of the company.
• This approach is not commonly practiced and is therefore not as well known.
• It requires tedious and time-consuming meetings with the customer to develop an understanding of the organization.

8. What is a business constraint that may impact the WAN design of a company?
• company policy regarding specific operating systems on LAN devices
• current monitoring protocols implemented on end-user devices
• non-availability of end users during implementation
• company policy requiring the use of specific vendor networking equipment due to partnerships

9. What is the purpose of preparing a business case?
• to justify the financial investment in implementing the technology change
• to provide an example of a previous job done in the RFP
• to define the technical requirements of the network
• to define timelines and critical milestones

10. What is the purpose of creating a prioritized list of technical requirements?
• defines the project scope
• determines the business profitability
• creates a feasibility report for analysis
• identifies existing and new user groups

11. A network engineer is analyzing the network of a potential client company to identify problems and determine whether a network upgrade or addition is needed. Which role in the sales team is this engineer assuming?
• post-sales field engineer
• pre-sales engineer
• account manager
• network designer

12. Which two statements best describe the responsibilities of an account manager? (Choose two.)
• acts as the primary point of contact between the company and the client
• directs the sales teams and support personnel
• provides technical support to critical clients
• selects the equipment and technologies to be used for the client solution
• acts as the network design lead

13. What is the purpose of system-level acceptance testing?
• To develop an installation plan for the newly designed network
• to train end users and support personnel on the newly installed network
• to check that the newly installed network meets the business goals and design requirements
• to justify the financial investment required to implement the technology change

14. What is a purpose of establishing a network baseline?
• It provides a statistical average for network performance.
• It manages the performance of network devices.
• It creates a point of reference for future network evaluations.
• It checks the security configuration of network devices.

15. When should a network baseline be performed within the stages of the Cisco Lifecycle Services?
• Prepare Phase
• Plan Phase
• Design Phase
• Implement Phase
• Operate Phase

16. What are two benefits of using a top-down approach instead of a bottom-up approach to network design? (Choose two.)
• incorporates organizational requirements
• allows for a quick response to a design request
• requires less time up front to create a network design
• clarifies design goals from the perspective of applications and network solutions
• facilitates a design by using devices and technologies that are based on previous experience

17. Which software component is installed on network devices that are managed through SNMP?
• management agents
• management stations
• network management protocol
• Management Information Base (MIB)

18. A network engineer working for a contracting company is informed of a pre-bid meeting with a potential client. What purpose does the network engineer have for attending the pre-bid meeting?
• to submit request for proposal responses
• to discuss proposed installation and monitoring plans
• to perform system-level acceptance tests on the current network
• to clarify project scope and timelines not included in the original request for proposal
• to create a business case outlining reasons for financial investment in a network upgrade

19. A major corporation has decided to hire someone to upgrade their network infrastructure. A network consulting company wants the job. What document must the network consulting company obtain to learn about the business goals, the project scope, the requirements for the new network and the expected deliverables?
• Business Case
• Project Plan
• Request for Proposal
• Request for Comments

20. A corporation (client) wants a network upgrade and is putting out a request for services to various network consulting companies (contractors). A RFQ is required. Which statement is true concerning the RFQ?
• sent from the contractors to the client in response to a RFP
• sent from the client to the contractors along with the RFP to provide more specific technical details
• sent from the client to the contractors in place of a RFP when the technical specifications of a project are known
• sent from the contractors to the client outlining reasons for financial investments for the network upgrade

21. Which stage of the Cisco Lifecycle Services involves proactive management to identify and resolve issues before the organization is affected?
• Prepare Phase
• Plan Phase
• Design Phase
• Implement Phase
• Operate Phase
• Optimize Phase

22. Why is it important to prioritize business goals when developing network design?
• to ensure that the least expensive technologies are implemented first
• to simplify the configuration, administration, and monitoring of the newly installed network
• to anticipate the effects of changes and growth of the business
• to adhere to the best opportunities to contribute to the success of the business

23. Which two items help identify business goals and priorities before a new network project starts? (Choose two.)
• installation
• motivation
• profitability
• trustworthiness
• customer satisfaction

24. A network engineer working for ABC company is writing a response to an RFP for a network upgrade and must create an executive summary. Which statement describes the basic components of an executive summary?
• quick overview of the problem, the recommended solution, and the justification for ABC company doing the job
• detailed description of the solution, including but not limited to, timelines, turnover schedule, warranty information, and emergency recovery information
• detailed description of costs including, the cost of software and hardware components, licensing requirements, labor cost, and other applicable fees
• multiple page document containing additional information such as detailed lists of equipment required, diagrams, company background information, and insurance coverage

25. In a network management architecture, which statement best describes a management agent?
• communication protocol used between a management station and managed device
• standardized database that a device keeps about itself concerning network performance parameters
• host with the management application loaded that is used by the administrator to monitor and configure network devices
• software running on a managed device to collect network information and allow that device to be managed by a management station

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 1 Exam Answers Version 4.0

2009-07-09T04:17:00.000-07:00

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 1 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. What are two mechanisms that provide redundancy for server farm implementations? (Choose two.)
• host intrusion prevention systems
• virtual private networks
• network intrusion prevention systems
• Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol
• Hot Standby Routing Protocol

2. The ability to connect securely to a private network over a public network is provided by which WAN technology?
• DSL
• Frame Relay
• ISDN
• PSTN
• VPN

3. Which three statements describe the functions of the Cisco hierarchical network design model? (Choose three.)
• Route summarization is not necessary at the core and distribution layers.
• The distribution layer is responsible for traffic filtering and isolating failures from the core.
• Two goals of the core layer are 100 percent uptime and maximizing throughput.
• The access layer provides a means of connecting end devices to the network.
• The distribution layer distributes network traffic directly to end users.
• The core layer usually employs a star topology.

4. A network designer is creating a new network. The design must offer enough redundancy to provide protection against a single link or device failure, yet must not be too complex or expensive to implement. What topology would fill these needs?
• star
• full mesh
• partial mesh
• extended star
• hub and spoke

5. Refer to the exhibit. If the firewall module has been correctly configured using best practices for network security, which statement is true about the security design for the network?
• Servers in the network are not protected from internal attacks.
• Servers in the DMZ are protected from internal and external attacks.
• Servers in the server farm are protected from internal and external attacks.
• Traffic from the external networks is not able to access the servers in the DMZ.

6. Which statement is true about a DMZ in a traditional network firewall design?
• A DMZ is designed to provide service for external access but not for internal access.
• Servers in the DMZ provide limited information that can be accessed from external networks.
• User access to the DMZ from the Internet and the internal network usually is treated the same way.
• All servers in the enterprise network should be located in a DMZ because of enhanced security measures.

7. What network connection would be most cost efficient while still meeting the security and connectivity needs of this teleworker?
• dedicated leased line connection with a dialup backup link
• Frame Relay connection with a DSL backup link
• DSL VPN connection with a dialup backup link
• ATM connection with a DSL VPN backup link
• DSL connection with no backup link

8. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the 192.168.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?
• interface fa0/0, inbound
• interface fa0/0, outbound
• interface fa0/1, inbound
• interface fa0/1, outbound

9. Refer to the exhibit. The server broadcasts an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what is the result of this ARP request?
• Router_1 contains the broadcast and replies with the MAC address of the next-hop router.
• Switch_A replies with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
• Switch_A and Switch_B continuously flood the message onto the network.
• Switch_B forwards the broadcast request and replies with the Router_1 address.

10. What are two best practices in wireless LAN design to ensure secure wireless access to the corporate network? (Choose two.)
• Configure APs for broadcast SSID.
• Place APs as far apart as possible.
• Use a separate WLAN for employees.
• Configure WPA.
• Use wireless routers in all IDFs.

11. In a well-designed, high-availability network, which device significantly affects the most users if a failure occurs?
• desktop PC of the user
• large switch in the network core layer
• large switch in the network distribution layer
• small workgroup switch in the network access layer

12. Which two statements are true regarding network convergence? (Choose two.)
• In a large network, using the EIGRP or OSPF routing protocols rather than RIPv2 may improve convergence time.
• Using STP at the core layer improves convergence time by allowing the use of redundant links between devices.
• Route summarization improves convergence time by minimizing the size of the routing table.
• A full mesh topology improves convergence time by allowing load balancing.
• ACLs can be configured to improve convergence time.

13. Centralizing servers in a data center server farm can provide which benefit over a distributed server environment?
• It keeps client-to-server traffic local to a single subnet.
• Servers located in a data center require less bandwidth.
• It is easier to filter and prioritize traffic to and from the data center.
• Server farms are not subject to denial of service attacks.

14. Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the ACL shown have on network traffic, assuming that it is correctly applied to the interface?
• All traffic to network 172.16.0.0 is denied.
• All TCP traffic is denied to and from network 172.16.0.0.
• All Telnet traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network to any destination is denied.
• All port 23 traffic to the 172.16.0.0 network is denied.
• All traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network is denied to any other network.

15. Which Cisco IOS function can be configured at the distribution layer to filter unwanted traffic and provide traffic management?
• virus protection
• spyware protection
• VPNs
• access control lists

16. What kind of ACL inspects outbound UDP, TCP, and ICMP traffic and allows inbound access only to traffic that belongs to these established sessions?
• dynamic ACL
• time-based ACL
• reflexive ACL
• lock and key ACL

17. Which three functions are performed at the distribution layer of the hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
• summarizing routes from the access layer
• allowing end users to access the local network
• providing the gateway of last resort for core layer devices
• preserving bandwidth at the access layer by filtering network functions
• isolating network problems to prevent them from affecting the core layer
• utilizing redundant links for load balancing to increase available bandwidth

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which two devices are part of the access design layer? (Choose two.)
• Edge2
• ISP4
• BR4
• FC-AP
• FC-CPE-1
• FC-ASW-2

19. What is true about implementing a centralized server farm topology?
• requires direct cabling from the MPOE to enhance the performance of servers
• requires the addition of high-capacity switches to each workgroup
• provides defined entry and exit points so that filtering and securing traffic is easier
• allows for placement of workgroup servers at the access layer

20. Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data?
• Frames from Host 1 are dropped, but no other action is taken.
• Frames from Host 1 cause the interface to shut down, and a log message is sent.
• Frames from Host 1 are forwarded, but a log message is sent.
• Frames from Host 1 are forwarded, and the mac-address table is updated.

21. Which two considerations are valid when designing access layer security?(Choose two.)
• In a large wireless network, the most efficient method to secure the WLAN is MAC address filtering.
• DoS attacks are normally launched against end-user PCs and can be mitigated by installing personal firewalls on all company PCs.
• SSH is more secure than Telnet to administer network devices.
• Disabling unused ports on the switches helps prevent unauthorized access to the network.
• All Telnet passwords are at least 6 characters long.

22. What address can be used to summarize only networks 172.16.0.0/24, 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, and 172.16.3.0/24?
• 172.16.0.0/21
• 172.16.0.0/22
• 172.16.0.0 255.255.255.248
• 172.16.0.0 255.255.254.0

23. Which two items in a physical WLAN design can be identified through a site survey? (Choose two.)
• the types of antennas that are required
• the encryption techniques that are required
• the access point hardware that is required
• the different levels of access that are required
• the connection reliability that is required

24. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements correctly describe the benefits of the network access layer design that is shown? (Choose two.)
• If host A sends a broadcast message, only hosts in VLAN10 receive the broadcast frame.
• If host A attempts to transmit data at the same time as another host, only hosts in VLAN10 are affected by the collision.
• Segmenting all voice traffic on a separate VLAN facilitates the implementation of QoS.
• VLANs improve network performance by facilitating the use of route summarization.
• VLANs at the access layer help guarantee network availability by facilitating load balancing.

25. What are three ways to ensure that an unwanted user does not connect to a wireless network and view the data? (Choose three.)
• Disable SSID broadcasting.
• Configure filters to restrict IP addresses.
• Use authentication between clients and the wireless device.
• Use NetBIOS name filtering between clients and the wireless device.
• Configure strong encryption such as WPA.
• Use a WEP compression method.

CCNA Discovery 3 FINAL Exam Answers Version 4.0

2009-07-08T18:17:00.001-07:00

CCNA Discovery 3 FINAL Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. In which VTP mode can a switch create VLANs, ignore VTP messages, and not pass local VLAN information to other VTP domain members?
• client
• server
• pruning
• transparent

2. What are two characteristics of an extended ACL? (Choose two.)
• IP is used to specify TCP traffic only.
• IP is used to specify TCP and UDP traffic only.
• IP is used to specify all TCP/IP protocols including TCP, UDP, ICMP and routing protocols.
• Traffic can be filtered on source address only.
• Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address only.
• Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address, protocol, and specific port number.

3. Which two statements are true regarding a PPP connection between two Cisco routers? (Choose two.)
• LCP tests the quality of the link.
• LCP manages compression on the link
• Only a single NCP is allowed between the two routers.
• NCP terminates the link when data exchange is complete.
• With CHAP authentication, the routers exchange plain text passwords.

4. Assuming VLSM is not being used, what impact will adding the command ip route 172.16.64.0 255.255.240.0 serial0/0 have on a router that is already operational in a network?
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.80.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.255.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.79.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.0.1 and 172.16.64.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.

5.

Refer to the exhibit. The network is using OSPF as the routing protocol. A network administrator issues the show ip ospf neighbor command to check the status of operation. Which statement is true?
• RB has the lowest priority value.
• RC and RD have the lowest router IDs on the network.
• RA has established adjacencies with all neighbor routers.
• RA and RB cannot form an adjacency because they are stuck in the 2-way state.

6. A sales representative is preparing to send sensitive information to corporate headquarters from a hotel room using the Internet. Prior to the trip, the IT staff made the necessary provisions to allow secure Internet access. What solution was implemented for the sales representative?
• VPN
• Frame Relay
• PPP with CHAP authentication
• PPP with PAP authentication

7.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator noticed that the VLAN configuration changes at SW2 did not propagate to SW3. On the basis of the partial output of the show vtp status command, what is the possible cause of the problem?
• VTP V2 mode is disabled.
• SW3 is configured as transparent mode.
• The number of existing VLANs does not match.
• The configuration revision number does not match.

8.

Refer to the exhibit. Because of continuing instability of one of the serial links in the OSPF network, a network administrator configures router ASBR as shown. Which two statements will be a result of this configuration? (Choose two.)
• Traffic intended for destinations across unstable serial links will be forwarded by ASBR even when the links are down
• A summary route of 192.168.0.0/22 will be advertised to the ISP router.
• Serial links in range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0 will be forced into a passive state.
• Networks connected to the unstable serial links will be placed in an unreachable state.
• Negative effects of route flapping will be reduced.

9. Which two criteria are used by STP to select a root bridge? (Choose two.)
• memory size
• bridge priority
• number of ports
• switch location
• switching speed
• base MAC address

10. A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 150 networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192

11.

What is the term for the value 2172416 that is highlighted in the output of the show ip eigrp topology command?
• feasible distance of the successor
• reported distance of the successor
• feasible distance of the feasible successor
• reported distance of the feasible successor

12.

Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 is configured in the network shown. Hosts in the network have access to all internal networks but do not have Internet access. On which router should the commands, shown in the exhibit, be added to provide Internet access for all hosts in the network?
• R1
• R2
• R3
• ISP

13. What do companies gain from the services performed at the enterprise edge?
• faster communication with server farms
• stronger security against malicious attacks
• faster communication with Internet destinations
• enhanced performance and reliability through VLANs and redundant trunk links

14.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wishes to deny Internet access to all R2 LAN hosts, while allowing these hosts to reach all other devices on the company networks. Where the ACL shown in the exhibit should be placed to meet these requirements?
• R2: Fa0/0 inbound
• R1: S0/1/0 outbound
• R1: S0/0/1 inbound
• R2: S0/0/1 outbound
• R2: Fa0/0 outbound

15.

Refer to the exhibit. In what sequence (from first to last) does an OSPF router check the parameters listed when selecting the DR?
• C, B, A, D
• D, C, B, A
• A, B, C, D
• A, C, B, D
• B, C, A, D

16. What two statements are true regarding EIGRP tables? (Choose two.)
• A feasible successor route can be found in the topology table.
• A successor route can only be found in the routing table.
• The topology table shows whether a route is in the passive or active state.
• The routing table shows the amount of time elapsed since a router adjacency was formed.
• The neighbor table shows all adjacent Cisco devices.
• Administrative distance is shown as a column in the neighbor table.

17.

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that all three routers are configured with the EIGRP routing protocol and sharing information, what information can be gathered from the show command output?
• Router B has EIGRP adjacencies with both router A and C.
• Router B has a fully converged topology table.
• Router B has not formed an adjacency with router A.
• Router B has not formed an adjacency with router C.

18. Which three statements are true about RSTP? (Choose three.)
• RSTP can fall back to STP to provide support for legacy equipment.
• RSTP and STP have the same number of port states.
• Like PortFast and UplinkFast, RSTP is a proprietary protocol.
• RSTP takes up to 50 seconds to converge.
• RSTP requires a point-to-point, full-duplex connection.
• RSTP views all ports that are not discarding as part of an active topology.

19.

Refer to the exhibit. A network support technician has been asked to set an IP address on one of the FastEthernet interfaces on a new router. What is causing the interface to reject the address?
• The IP address is already in use.
• The technician is using a network address.
• The technician is using the wrong subnet mask for /26
• The technician must enable VLSM on the interface.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator enters the command ip route 10.10.4.16 255.255.255.248 s0/0/1 into the router. What will be the result of this configuration?
• A static route pointing to 10.10.4.16/29 is placed into the routing table.
• A static route to 10.10.4.16/29 is placed into the routing table if interface FastEthernet0/1 goes down.
• A static route pointing to 10.10.4.16/29 is only placed into the routing table if the route to 10.10.4.0 is removed.
• A static route is not placed into the routing table because a RIP route that includes the destination network already exists.

21.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is connected to the Internet through its serial 0/0/0 interface. Hosts on the 192.168.100.0/24 LAN on R1 cannot communicate with hosts on the Internet. What two NAT configuration issues might explain this failure? (Choose two.)
• The ip nat pool command has not been applied correctly.
• The inside interface has not been defined on R1.
• The access list does not include the group of IP addresses that are supported by the inside network.
• The ip address that is assigned to the serial 0/0/0 interface is incorrect
• The outside interface has not been defined on R1.

22.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected via serial interfaces. Both interfaces show that there is Layer 2 connectivity between them. The administrator verifies that CDP is operational; however, pings between the two interfaces are unsuccessful. What is the cause of this connectivity problem?
• no set loopback
• incorrect subnet mask on R2
• incompatible bandwidth
• incorrect IP address on R1
• incompatible encapsulation

23. Which two statements describe how the information contained in a BPDU is used by a switch? (Choose two.)
• to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
• to activate looped paths throughout the network
• to determine the root bridge
• to prevent loops by sharing routing tables between connected switches
• to determine which ports are placed in forwarding mode

24. When MD5 authentication is used for OSPF routing protocol authentication, what two facts are known about the key? (Choose two.)
• The key passes between routers in plain text.
• The key is used to help generate an encrypted number for authentication.
• The key passes between routers in encrypted form.
• The key is never transmitted.
• The key can be captured by using a packet sniffer.

25.

Refer to the exhibit. If router RTA fails, which statement is true?
• Hosts A and B can reach each other, but cannot reach hosts C and D or the server.
• No host can reach any other host.
• Hosts A, B, C, and D can reach each other, but cannot reach the server.
• All hosts can reach each other.

26. Which command should a network administrator issue to disable default summarization in an EIGRP network?
• Router(config-router)# null 0 route
• Router(config-if)# no ip summary-address
• Router(config-router)# no ip summary-address
• Router(config-if)# no auto-summary
• Router(config-router)# no auto-summary

27.

Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 172.30.20.0/24 network are unable to access any of the servers located on the 192.168.0.0/23 network. Given the network topology and OSPF configuration, what two problems exist in this network? (Choose two.)
• There is a routing loop occurring between all three routers.
• There is a network statement missing.
• Network 172.30.20.0 has an incorrect wildcard mask.
• The OSPF Area configuration is incorrect.
• /23 is an invalid subnet mask for the 192.168.0.0 network.

28.

Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme would be correct for the network?
• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.18.0.11/16
H3-172.18.0.12/16
• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.19.0.10/16
H3-172.18.0.11/16
• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.18.0.11/16
H3-172.19.0.11/16
• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.19.0.11/16
H3-172.19.0.11/16

29.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new router to the network. The IP address 192.168.13.6/30 has been assigned to the connecting serial interface on R2. What IP address must the administrator assign to the serial interface of the new router?
• 192.168.13.4/30
• 192.168.13.5/30
• 192.168.13.7/30
• 192.168.13.58/30
• 192.168.13.61/27
• 192.168.13.63/27

30. After comparing a previous baseline to current network statistics, the network engineer has discovered a significant increase in unwarranted traffic to the extranet. Which two steps simplify administration and control the unwanted traffic? (Choose two.)
• define an ACL at the distribution layer to isolate packets
• add an ACL at the router in the enterprise edge to block the traffic
• deploy a Layer 3 switch to contain broadcasts
• connect remote locations directly to the intranet
• configure all hosts with the same default gateway to eliminate unnecessary broadcasts
• deploy one core ISP router to reduce the delay in path determination

31. Which statement is accurate about the CIR in Frame Relay?
• It is important to purchase a CIR that matches the highest bandwidth requirements of the enterprise.
• The CIR can be no lower than the port speed of the local loop.
• The CIR defines the contracted maximum rate available from the service provider on the Frame Relay circuit
• It is possible to burst over the CIR if bandwidth is available.

32. A sales representative is using a wireless connection to make a VoIP call. Which protocol will be used to transport the voice packets?
• TCP
• UDP
• PPP
• HDLC

33. A network administrator wants to deny responses to ping requests. Which ACL statement denies ping responses while not affecting other traffic?
• access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 80
• access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 20
• access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 21
• access-list 123 deny icmp any any echo-reply
• access-list 101 deny tcp any any established

34. Why would a network administrator want to limit the size of failure domains when designing a network?
• to eliminate the effects of Ethernet collisions
• to reduce the impact of a key device or service failure
• to reduce the impact of Internet congestion on critical traffic
• to eliminate the need to block broadcast packets at the edge of the local network

35. What are two benefits of implementing VLANs in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
• eliminates the need for a Layer 3 device
• provides segmentation of broadcast domains
• allows for the propagation of broadcasts from one local network to another
• allows for the logical grouping of devices despite physical location
• prevents issues such as broadcast storms by ensuring a loop free environment

36. Which three IP addresses are valid host addresses in the 10.200.0.0/20 network? (Choose three.)
• 10.200.11.69
• 10.200.16.1
• 10.200.0.255
• 10.201.0.55
• 10.200.15.240
• 10.200.30.29

37.

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the RIPv1 routing protocol is enabled and that all networks are being advertised, which statement is true?
• All packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will arrive at H2.
• None of the packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will arrive at H2.
• Approximately half the traffic from H1 that is destined to H2 will reach R3.
• Some of the packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will be sent to the switch that is connected to network 192.168.3.64/26.

38.

Refer to the exhibit. Which route will appear in the routing table?
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.10.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/1
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.20.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/2] via 10.10.20.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/3] via 10.10.30.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet1/0
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.30.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet1/0

39.

Refer to the exhibit. Server7 has been added to the server farm network. The hosts can ping Servers 2 and 3 and Server2 and Server3 can ping each other. Server7 cannot ping the other servers connected to the switch. What is the cause of this problem?
• The Fa0/1 port on the switch should be in access mode.
• The switch IP address is not on the same subnet as Server7.
• The switch port used for Server7 is not in the same VLAN as Server2 and Server3.
• The Fa0/0 interface of the router has not been configured for subinterfaces to support inter-VLAN routing.

40. What will be the two wildcard masks required in an extended access list statement that blocks traffic to host 192.168.5.45 from the 172.16.240.0/27 network? (Choose two.)
• 0.0.0.0 5
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.255.255
• 0.0.31.255
• 255.255.255.240
• 0.0.0.31

41. If a modem is being used to connect to an ISP, which WAN connection type is being used?
• leased line
• cell switched
• circuit switched
• packet switched

42.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must manually summarize all IP addresses on the POP router for the ISP. Which one is the correct summary address?
• 192.168.0.0/22
• 192.168.0.0/23
• 192.168.0.0/24
• 192.168.0.0/25

43.

Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is enabled and the network has completely converged. Which two routers will be designated as DROTHER routers? (Choose two.)
• R1
• R2
• R3
• R4

44.

Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the displayed output? (Choose two.)
• A packet with a destination IP address of 172.20.1.14 will exit the router via the Serial 0/1/0n interface.
• The default administrative distance for EIGRP has been changed.
• Network 172.20.1.4 can be reached through two possible routes of equal cost.
• The addresses on this network were created using VLSM.
• The router connected to Serial 0/1/1 is advertising four separate routes through EIGRP to this router.

45.

Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be gathered from the output of this command? (Choose two.)
• 172.16.16.0/20 is a manually summarized route.
• All subnets are being advertised because default summarization was disabled.
• The output verifies that EIGRP is advertising only the networks in the same AS.
• The 172.16.1.0/24 network is directly attached to the router that produced this output.
• The Null0 interface indicates that this is not an actual path, but a summary for advertising purposes.

46.

Refer to the exhibit. What three facts represent the result of DR and BDR elections in this OSPF network? (Choose three.)
• RTC will be the DR of 10.5.0.0/30
• RTD will be the BDR of 10.5.0.0/30.
• RTD will be the DR of 10.4.0.0/28.
• RTB will be the BDR of 10.7.0.0/28.
• RTB will be the DR of 10.7.0.0/28.
• RTA will be the BDR of 10.4.0.0/28.

47.

Refer to the exhibit. Internet access is crucial for the company network shown. Internet access is provided by two ISPs. ISP1 is the primary provider and ISP2 is the backup provider. The network administrator configures BorderR as the border router so that in normal operations, all Internet traffic goes through ISP1. However, if the link to ISP1 fails, then BorderR will automatically forward Internet traffic to ISP2. The administrator configures two default routes:
BorderR(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.100.1 200
BorderR(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1
However, when the administrator issued the show ip route command to verify the configuration, only the second default route is in the routing table. Why is the first default route not showing?
• The first configuration command overwrites the second command.
• The first default route will be installed into the routing table if there is traffic with an IP address that is destined for the 192.168.100.0 network.
• This is expected because the link to ISP1 is active. If the link to ISP1 goes down, then the first default route will be installed into the routing table.
• The first default route cannot be installed into the routing table unless the administrator manually disables the second default route with the no ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1 command.

48.

Refer to the exhibit. If R4 is announcing all shown internal networks as a summary address to the ISP, which summary address will be most specific?
• 192.168.1.0/22
• 192.168.4.0/21
• 192.168.6.0/23
• 192.168.8.0/21
• 192.168.4.0/22

49. Which two statements are true about the native VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)
• It requires a special VLAN ID tag.
• It is unable to be changed to a different VLAN.
• Untagged traffic slows the switching process down
• The native VLAN defaults to VLAN 1 on Cisco Catalyst switches.
• Untagged frames that are received on a trunk become members of this VLAN

50.

Refer to the exhibit. A company has recently installed a new switch (S2) into their network.After several minutes, the network administrator notices that the new VLAN information is not being propagated to the new switch. Given the show vtp status command output, what is the possible problem that prevents the information from being received by the new switch?
• VTP version mismatch
• VTP domain name mismatch
• VTP revision number mismatch
• Time synchronization problems

51.

Refer to the exhibit. All routes in the exhibit are available to a router. Which two routes will be placed into the routing table? (Choose two.)
• A
• B
• C
• D
• E
• F

52.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command: RouterA(config)# access-list 1 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255?
• It identifies traffic on all inside interfaces to be translated and given access to the ISP router.
• It identifies traffic from the fa0/1 interface to be translated and given access to the ISP router.
• It allows traffic from the ISP to reach all of the inside interfaces.
• It identifies traffic from the fa0/0 interface to be translated and given access to the ISP router
• It allows traffic from the ISP router to the fa0/1 interface.

53. The headquarters of a corporation uses static routes to connect to three branch offices. What are two advantages of using static routes for the WAN connections? (Choose two.)
• Static routes are more secure.
• Static routes converge faster.
• Static routes have higher administrative distances than dynamic routing protocols.
• The metrics of a static route need adjusting only if the bandwidth of the WAN connection changes.
• They are more stable and less susceptible to network changes in the interior gateway protocol.

54. What are two ways VLAN memberships can be created in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
• manually configuring the switch ports to be part of a VLAN
• allowing the user to choose a specific VLAN through a GUI menu
• configuring the switch to allow VLAN membership based on NetBIOS association
• implementing an access list that specifies which devices are placed into specific VLANs.
• associating MAC addresses to specific VLANs in a VLAN management policy server database
• manually configuring the host devices to be part of a VLAN

55. Which two statements are true about RIPv1 and RIPv2? (Choose two.)
• Both versions broadcast updates on port 520.
• Both versions send the subnet mask as part of the update.
• By default, both versions will receive RIPv1 and RIPv2 updates.
• Both versions support the features of split horizon and poison reverse
• By default, both versions automatically summarize routes.
• RIPv1 has a higher AD than RIPv2 has.

56. Which bandwidth allocation technique minimizes bandwidth waste by reallocating unused time slices to communicating users?
• VPN
• NCP
• TDM
• STP
• STDM

57.

Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by the Null0 route for the 128.107.0.0 network?
• a child route that is defined
• a parent route that is defined and sourced from a physical interface
• a summary route for advertising purposes, not an actual path
• the result of the no auto-summary command on a router

58. If an authentication protocol is configured for PPP operation, when is the client or user workstation authenticated?
• prior to link establishment
• during the link establishment phase
• before the network layer protocol configuration begins
• after the network layer protocol configuration has ended

CCNA Discovery 3 Module 9 Exam Answers Version 4.0

2009-07-08T18:16:00.002-07:00

CCNA Discovery 3 Module 9 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output shown, to which IP network should the workstations in the Support department belong?
• 192.168.1.0
• 172.16.1.0
• 172.16.3.0
• 172.16.5.0

2.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is doing proactive network maintenance. The administrator pings 192.168.1.100 and compares the results to the baseline data. Based on the comparison of the two pings, what is one possibility?
• There is an ACL applied, making the destination host unreachable.
• There is a malfunctioning NIC on the destination host.
• The sending host is unable to access the network.
• There are congestion problems on the network.

3.

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output generated by the debug ppp negotiation command, which statement is true?
• The line protocol of the local router is now up.
• The username ’Goleta’ is configured locally.
• The command ppp authentication pap is configured on both routers.
• The local router requested to terminate the session.

4. What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when implementing inter-VLAN routing?
• The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number.
• The physical interface must have an IP address configured.
• The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet.
• The no shutdown command must be given on each subinterface.

5.

Refer to the exhibit. A lab technician connects two routers together via a serial cable using the default interface configuration values. The interfaces are up; however, the technician is unable to ping between the two devices. What is the most likely problem?
• The lab technician used the wrong cable to connect the serial ports.
• There is an IP mismatch between the serial ports.
• There is an encapsulation mismatch between the serial ports.
• No clock rate has been set on the DCE interface.

6.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output shown, why is VTP information unable to propagate the network?
• One of the two client mode switches must be reconfigured to Transparent mode.
• Each switch must be synchronized to the network time server.
• The VTP domain names are different.
• VTP passwords must be set.
• The configuration revision numbers are all the same.

7. The enterprise mail server software recently went through a minor update. A network administrator notices an excessive amount of traffic between a database server and the newly updated mail server, compared to the baseline data. What is the first action the administrator should do to investigate the problem?
• Wait to see if the recent update will stabilize after a while.
• Redo the baseline data to include the minor upgrade.
• Check the log to see what software components are producing the excess traffic.
• Check for viruses and spyware on the database server.

8.

Refer to the exhibit. Users are reporting that they cannot access the Internet. Routers R1 and R2 are configured with RIP version 2 as shown. If R2 receives a packet with a destination address on the Internet, how is the packet routed?
• The packet is routed to the ISP router and then to network 10.1.1.0/24.
• The packet is routed to the ISP router and then to the Internet.
• The packet is routed to R1 and then forwarded out Fa0/0 on R1.
• The packet will not be routed because R2 does not have a valid default route.

9.

Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about the directly connected routes. R1 can successfully ping the serial interface of R2. The routing table on R1 does not contain any dynamically learned routes from R2, and the routing table on R2 shows no dynamically learned routes from R1. What is the problem?
• Subnetting is not supported by RIPv1.
• One of the routers needs a clock rate on the serial interface.
• The serial link between the two routers is unstable.
• VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.

10.

Refer to the exhibit. Host 192.168.1.14 is unable to download email from 192.168.2.200. After reviewing the output of the show running-config command, what problem is discovered?
• Access to the SMTP server is denied.
• The destination host address in an ACL statement is incorrect.
• The ACL is applied to the interface in the wrong direction.
• The implicit deny any any is blocking all access to email.

11. An employee called the help desk to report a laptop that could not access a web-based application on the Internet. The help desk technician asked the employee to open a Windows command prompt and type the ipconfig /all command. Which problem-solving technique did the technician choose?
• top-down
• bottom-up
• substitution
• divide-and-conquer

12.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the network diagram and the output shown, which statement is true?
• The command was entered on router R1.
• The command was entered on router R2.
• The command was entered on router R3.
• The command could have been entered on either R1 or R2.

13.

Refer to the exhibit. An ACL is configured to prevent access by network 192.168.1.0 to network 192.168.2.0, but it is not working properly. What problem is discovered after observing the output of the show running-config command?
• The protocol type specified in the ACL should be TCP, not IP.
• The source and destination addresses are reversed in the statement.
• The ACL is applied to the wrong interface, but the right direction.
• The ACL is applied to the wrong interface and the wrong direction.
• The permit ip any any statement allows network 192.168.1.0 access.

14.

Although all networks are reachable, the network administrator notices abnormal routing behavior after configuring OSPF on each router. According to the partial output from the debug ip ospf events command, which statement is true about the contents of the routing table in RA?
• It will show network 172.16.3.0 learned from RB.
• It will show network 172.16.3.0 learned from RC.
• It will show two equal routes to network 192.168.1.4/30.
• It will show two equal routes to network 192.168.1.8/30.

15. A network at a large building failed, causing a severe disruption in business activities. The problem was eventually detected and resolved by replacing a piece of failed network equipment. Investigation led to the conclusion that a network design problem was the main cause of the disruption. Loss of a single piece of equipment should not have been able to cause such a large problem. What two terms best describe this type of design weakness? (Choose two.)
• bottleneck
• limited availability
• limited scalability
• large failure domain
• single point of failure
• limited staff capabilities

16.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is troubleshooting the connectivity issue between RA and RB. According to the partial configuration, what is the cause of the problem?
• password mismatch for PPP authentication
• username mismatch for PPP authentication
• encapsulation method mismatch for PPP authentication
• authentication method mismatch for PPP authentication

17.

Refer to the exhibit. ABC Company is using the 172.16.0.0/18 network. It is standard company practice to use the first 50 addresses for switches and servers and assign the last usable address to the router. The remaining addresses are assigned to the hosts. After assigning the addresses, the network technician tests connectivity from the host above and is not able to ping the router. What could be the problem?
• The router was assigned the broadcast address.
• The host is not in the same subnet as the switch and router.
• The router interface is in the wrong subnet.
• The host was assigned a network address.

18.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a problem. No users are able to access the 10.10.2.0/24 network, but are able to access all other networks. Assuming R3 is configured correctly and based on the output shown, what is most likely the problem?
• There is congestion on the 10.10.2.0 network.
• The EIGRP process number on R2 is incorrect.
• The Fa0/0 interface on R2 is shut down.
• The Fa0/0 interface on R2 has an incorrect IP address or subnet mask.

19.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator correctly configures RTA to perform inter-VLAN routing. Using the show vlan command, the administrator verifies that port Fast Ethernet 0/4 is the first available port in the default VLAN on SW2. The administrator connects RTA to port 0/4 on SW2, but inter-VLAN routing does not work. What could be the possible cause of the problem with the SW2 configuration?
• Port 0/4 is not active.
• Port 0/4 must be a member of VLAN1.
• Port 0/4 is configured in access mode.
• Port 0/4 is configured as a trunk port.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is unable to ping from the console of router R3 to host 10.10.4.63. What is the problem?
• RIPv1 does not support VLSM.
• Router R2 does not have RIP correctly configured.
• Router R3 is missing a network statement for network 10.0.0.0.
• There is an addressing problem on the link between routers R2 and R3.

21.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has implemented subnetting using the network 192.168.25.0 and a /28 mask. Workstation 1 is not able to ping with Workstation 2. What is a possible cause for this lack of communication?
• Workstation 1 and Workstation 2 are on the same subnet.
• The serial connections are using addresses from the LAN subnets.
• All hosts in the network must be in the same subnet to communicate.
• Workstation 1 is not on the same network that the RTA router LAN interface is on.

22. Which two statements describe when a network administrator should perform a network baseline? (Choose two.)
• It should be done monthly as a minimum standard.
• It should be performed when all switch Cisco IOS versions are upgraded.
• It should be done when all network printers are upgraded to a new model.
• It should be done when the network is performing at normal activity levels.
• It should be done whenever an SLA has been signed with a new service provider.